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Dr NTRUHS PGMET 1st Mar 2015

Participant ID 826176

Participant Name SAI PRAVEEN REDDY PEERU

Test Center Name Rajamahendri Institute of Engineering & Technology

Q.1 Which of the following statements is fully TRUE?

1) Raloxifene is a SERM that prevents breast cancer but increases risk of endometrial cancer

2) BRCA 1&2 gene mutations cause breast cancer and are passed from mother to daughter by mitochondrial inheritance

3) Paget's disease of the nipple is a type of breast cancer with prominent Paget cells and presence of S-100 Ag immunostaining

4) Lobular carcinoma in situ arises from epithelial lining of the minor ducts and 10% occur in males

Chosen Option: 1

Q.2 The thoracic vertebrae are characterized by the presence of which one of the following?

1) Accessory process

2) Mamillary process

3) Bifid spine

4) Costal facet

Chosen Option: 3

Q.3 What is FALSE about Informed Consent

1) All information must be given, except expected complications, as the patient may get frightened

2) All information must be given regarding treatment options

3) All disclosures must be in patient's own language

4) Information must be given, regarding any treatment options better than the treatment option being provided

Chosen Option: 1

Q.4 Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle

1) It has important role in development of medullary hyperosmolarity

2) Thiazide diuretics act on this segment

3) It is responsible for reabsorbtion of nearly 30% of filtered sodium

4) It has Na+ -K+-2Cl- co transporters

Chosen Option: 2

Q.5 In renal biopsy of a 14 year old boy with nephritic syndrome, glomeruli are showing proliferation of mesangial cells with GBM thickening and mesangial celinterposition. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

1) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

2) Mesangiocapillary glomerulonepthritis

3) Membranous Nephropathy

4) Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

Chosen Option: 2

Q.6 All the following are True regarding FAST -- EXCEPT

1) It detects free fluid in the abdomen or pericardium

2) It is accurate in detecting < 50ml. of free blood

3) It cannot reliably exclude injury in penetrating trauma

4) It is a focused abdominal sonar for trauma

Chosen Option: 1


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Q.7 Salivary calculi are commonly seen in ___ gland

1) Minor salivary glands

2) Parotid

3) Sublingual

4) Submandibular

Chosen Option: 4

Q.8 Choristoma is a

1) Heterotopic (ectopic) rest of cells

2) Benign tumor of cartilaginous tissue

3) Benign tumor of trophoblastic cell

4) Example of hamartoma

Chosen Option: 1

Q.9 Which of the following is TRUE regarding tuberculosis

1) Hilar / paratracheal lymphadenopathy is characteristically absent in primary tuberculosis

2) Primary tuberculosis carries a high level of transmissibility

3) Primary tuberculosis usually involves the mid and lower zones

4) 90% of inhaled bacilli from droplet nuclei reach the alveoli

Chosen Option: 2

Q.10 Pringle Maneuver may be required for treatment of

1) Liver Laceration

2) Injury to Tail of Pancreas

3) Mesenteric Ischemia

4) Bleeding Esophageal Varices

Chosen Option: 1

Q.11 Which one of the following values is not a feature of Acute Severe Asthma.

1) Heart rate of more than 110 / min.

2) PEF of 60 to 70% of expected

3) Pulsus Paradoxus

4) PaO2 of less than 8 kPa

Chosen Option: 2

Q.12

Which one of the following is the likely diagnosis based on the smear given above?

1) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

2) Acute myelogenous leukemia

3) Hairy cell leukemia


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4) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Chosen Option: 3

Q.13

The above picture shows the pressure curves and volume curve and ECG. The following statements are True from the picture EXCEPT -

1) A represents isovolumic contraction

2) B represents ejection

3) C is isovolumic relaxation

4) There is no significant gradient between LA & LV in diastole

Chosen Option: 4


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Q.14 Which of the following is NOT True regarding Anakinra?

1) Not combined with anti TNF drugs due to the risk of serious infections

2) Used in Muckle Wells Syndrome & adult Still's disease

3) soluble IL-2 receptor antagonist

4) Useful in Familial Cold Urticaria

Chosen Option: 1

Q.15

Third person auditory hallucinations and delusions of thought interference / broadcasting are characteristic of 1) Delirium tremens

2) Manic phase of MDP

3) Schizophrenia

4) Fragile X syndrome

Chosen Option: 3

Q.16 Mid Systolic Click is classically heard in

1) Hamman - Rich syndrome

2) Congenital MS

3) Rheumatic aortic regurgitation

4) Mitral valve prolapse

Chosen Option: 2

Q.17

Identify this organism.

1)

Trichomonas vaginalis

2) Malassezia furfur

3) Sarcoptes scabei

4) Trichinella spiralis

Chosen Option: 2


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Q.18

This young patient came with wing beating tremor and liver cell failure. The above is picture of his eye. What is the diagnosis?

1) Primary biliary cirrhosis

2) Galactosemia

3) Paralysis agitans

4) Hepatolenticular degeneration

Chosen Option: 2

Q.19

This patient came with this complaint one month after an extramarital sexual contact. He has no pain. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

1) A single dose of 2.4 million units of benzathine penicillin IM is the treatment

2) Examination of the groin will reveal a characteristic Groove Sign

3) He is likely to develop arthritis of the knee

4) It is caused by Hemophilus ducreyi

Chosen Option: 1

Q.20 ‘Angle of His’ refers to

1) Ileo-cecal junction


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2) Meeting of Anus and Rectum

3) Meeting of Fundus and GE junction

4) Duodeno-jejunal junction

Chosen Option: 1

Q.21 A 25 year old man has pigmented macules over the palms, soles and oral mucosa. He also has anemia and abdominal pain. Which one of the following is thelikely diagnosis?

1) Albright's Syndrome

2) Peutz - Jegher's Syndrome

3) Cushing's syndrome

4) Incontinentia pigmenti

Chosen Option: 2

Q.22 Which one of the following inherited conditions causes direct hyperbilirubinemia

1) Gilbert syndrome

2) Type II Crigler Najjar syndrome

3) Rotor syndrome

4) Type I Crigler Najjar syndrome

Chosen Option: 3

Q.23

Which of the following is most likely in this patient?

1) Unilateral exophthalmos


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2) Bell’s palsy right

3) Horner’s syndrome left

4) Anisokoria

Chosen Option: 3

Q.24 Alcohol dehydrogenase requires NAD+ for catalytic activity. The NAD+ is functioning as

1) Coenzyme-cosubstrate

2) Apo enzyme

3) Cofactor

4) Coenzyme-prosthetic group

Chosen Option: 3

Q.25

1) 2mg, 1mg, 2


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2) 2mg, 6mg, 3

3) 6mg, 5mg, 1.2

4) 3mg, 2mg, 6.66

Chosen Option: 1

Q.26

This patient, previously healthy, came now with dyspnea and low grade fever since 4 months. His lungs are clear. JVP is normal. ECG showed low voltagecomplexes. What is the possible diagnosis?

1) Tuberculous pericardial effusion

2) Hypertrophic cariomyopathy

3) Rheumatic Mitral stenosis

4) Syphilitic Aortic aneurysm

Chosen Option: 2


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Q.27 Select the TRUE statement among the following

1) Roentgen is a measure of effective dose (energy deposited per unit of mass in a referneced individual)

2) Becquerel is a measure of activity (the rate of radioactive decay)

3) Gray is a measure of exposure (amount of ionisations in dry air per unit of mass)

4) Sievert is a measure of absorbed dose (energy deposited per mass of tissue)

Chosen Option: 3

Q.28

1) pqr = xzy

2) pqr = zxy

3) pqr = xyz

4) pqr = yzx

Chosen Option: 2


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Q.29 In ultrasonography, fetal abdominal circumference is measured at the level of

1) Kidney and renal artery

2) Stomach and umbilical vein

3) Liver and cystic duct

4) Spleen and celiac plexus

Chosen Option: 2

Q.30 A patient was admitted with a history of severe vomiting. The following is his arterial blood gas report –arterial blood pH = 7.7

plasma bicarbonate = 45 meq/ li.Urinary chloride = 5 meq / li.Which of the following statements is True regarding this patient?

1) Patient should be given IV normal saline

2) Patient needs urgent ammonium chloride infusion

3) This is saline unresponsive alkalosis

4) Possible diagnosis is primary hyperaldosteronism

Chosen Option: 1

Q.31 Cystic spaces lined by double layer of neoplastic epithelial cells resting on dense lymphoid tissue is a feature of

1) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

2) Dermoid cyst

3) Aneurysmal bone cyst

4) Warthin tumor

Chosen Option: 4

Q.32 In studying the association between disease and exposure factor, a study design which allows the study of multiple outcomes for a given exposure is

1) Case control study

2) Ecological study

3) Cross sectional study

4) Cohort study

Chosen Option: 4

Q.33 Scatalogia is

1) Falling in love with an object made by him


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2) Obscene telephone calls to carry out sexual provocative conversation

3) Sexual excitement obtained by using obscene language

4) Self love which may or may not include genital excitation

Chosen Option: 3

Q.34 Wolfe Graft is

1) Full thickness skin graft

2) Medium thickness split thickness skin graft

3) Thin split thickness graft

4) Thick split thickness skin graft

Chosen Option: 1

Q.35 The equilibrium potential for potassium ion in mammalian spinal motor neuron is

1) Minus 90 mV

2) Minus 70 mV

3) Plus 60 mV R15

4) Plus 70mV

Chosen Option: 1

Q.36 Owl’s eye appearance inclusions are seen in

1) Epstein-Barr virus infection

2) Cytomegalovirus infections

3) Adenovirus infection

4) Herpes simplex virus infections

Chosen Option: 2

Q.37 Which of the following is TRUE regarding Fern tree appearance of cervical mucosa

1) It is due to low NaCl & high protein

2) It is seen by naked eye examination

3) It is due to high progesterone

4) It is due to high estrogen

Chosen Option: 3

Q.38 A 50 year male patient came with an ulceroproliferative growth measuring 3cms in the left buccal mucosa with a 5cm right submandibular lymph node and cno evidence of distant metastasis. What is the TNM staging?

1) T3 N2b M0

2) T2 N3 M0

3) T2 N2b M0

4) T2 N2c M0

Chosen Option: 2

Q.39 A 40 year old lady came with menorrhagia since 1 year. Ultrasound showed a single intramural fibroid of 8x6 cms. in the anterior wall. She is very certain shnot want to undergo hysterectomy. The following are treatment options for her EXCEPT

1) Myometcomy

2) High intensity focussed ultrasound

3) Non hormonal intrauterine device

4) Uterine artery embolisation

Chosen Option: 3

Q.40


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These lesions are suggestive of –

1) Erythema induratum

2) Erythema multiforme

3) Erythema nodosum

4) Erythema infectiosum

Chosen Option: 3

Q.41 All the following statements are true regarding torsion of testis EXCEPT

1) Anatomical abnormality is unilateral and contalateral testis should not be fixed

2) Prompt exploration and twisting & fixation is the only way to save the torted testis

3) Most common between 10 & 25 years of age

4) Inversion of testis is the most common predisposing cause

Chosen Option: 1

Q.42 Which one of the following is a Gram negative fusiform gliding bacillus?

1) Eikinella

2) Moraxella

3) Capnocytophaga

4) Kingella

Chosen Option: 2

Q.43


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This young boy came with history of fever and severe right throat pain and odynophagia. His voice is muffled (hot potato voice). This is his picture. Which ofollowing is the most likely cause of his complaints?

1) Candidial infection

2) Quinsy

3) Glossitis

4) Chronic fibrotic tonsillitis

Chosen Option: 1

Q.44 The earliest radiological sign in Pott's disease is

1) Narrowing of intervertebral disc space

2) Paraspinal soft tissue shadow

3) Erosion of vertebral bodies

4) Collapse & destruction of vertebra

Chosen Option: 1

Q.45

These pictures depict

1) Psoriasis

2) Toxic epidermal necrolysis

3) Extensive Tinea corporis

4) Exfoliative dermatitis


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Chosen Option: 1

Q.46 Whipple’s Triad is diagnostic of

1) Insulinoma

2) Somatostatinoma

3) Glucagonoma

4) Gastrinoma

Chosen Option: 1

Q.47 To reach the tunica vaginalis in the scrotum, all the following structures have to be pierced by a needle EXCEPT

1) Cremasteric fascia

2) Tunica albuginea

3) Skin

4) Dartos muscle

Chosen Option: 1

Q.48 Extension of metacarpophalangeal joint of the hand is lost in injury to

1) Ulnar nerve

2) Posterior interosseous nerve

3) Median nerve

4) Anterior interosseous nerve

Chosen Option: 2

Q.49

This hypertensive patient was admitted with right hemiplegia. Plain CT scan shows

1) Ischemic infarct in left parietal lobe

2) Hemorrhage in left frontal lobe

3) Hemorrhage in left thalamus & internal capsule

4) Ischemic infarct in internal capsule

Chosen Option: 1

Q.50


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The picture above shows

1) Pterygium

2) Pingecula

3) Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

4) Bitot's spots

Chosen Option: 4

Q.51 If in early labor, persistent early decelerations are present, one should suspect

1) Placental insufficiency

2) Cord compression

3) Fetal distress

4) Head compression

Chosen Option: 4

Q.52

Identify the crystals depicted in urine microscopy.

1) Uric acid crystals

2) Oxalate crystals

3) Cystine crystals


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4) Struvite crystals

Chosen Option: 2

Q.53 Which of the following is nephrotoxic?

1) Mycophenolate mofetil

2) Cyclophosphamide

3) Tacrolimus

4) Azathioprine

Chosen Option: 1

Q.54 Foldable IOL’s are made of

1) Acrylic

2) Polypropylene

3) Sodium hyaluronate

4) Polymethyl methacrylate

Chosen Option: 1

Q.55 All the following are True regarding Familial Adenomatous Polyposis EXCEPT

1) > 100 colorectal polyps are present

2) Congenital Hypertrophy of Retinal Pigment Epithelium is seen in upto 50% patients

3) It is due to a mutation of APC gene in chromosome 15

4) It is an Autosomal Dominant disorder

Chosen Option: 3

Q.56 The following are True regarding kidney development EXCEPT

1) Human kidney develops mainly from metanephros

2) Collecting parts of kidney develop from the ureteric bud

3) Mesonephric duct disappears

4) Kidney starts developing in the sacral region and ascends to the lumbar position

Chosen Option: 4

Q.57


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What is the diagnosis of the barium esophagogram?

1) Hiatus hernia

2) Achalasia cardia

3) Diffuse esophageal spasm

4) Reflux esophagitis

Chosen Option: 2

Q.58

Which one of the following techniques of tubectomy is depicted in the diagramm above?

1) Pomeroy technique

2) Kroener technique

3) Irving technique

Uchida technique


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4)

Chosen Option: 1

Q.59 The following are True regarding Carcinoma Cervix EXCEPT

1) untreated, more than 50% of patients die due to obstructive uropathy

2) commonest histological type is adenocarcinoma

3) HIV infection & smoking are risk factors

4) Etiologically related to infection with HPV, primarily types 16 & 18

Chosen Option: 2

Q.60 Raw material used in nylon suture is

1) Polyester polymer

2) Polybutylene terephthalate

3) Polyamide polymer

4) Polyethylene terephthalate

Chosen Option: 1

Q.61 The following are True regarding treatment of HIVAIDS EXCEPT

1) Raltegravir is an inhibitor of viral enzyme integrase

2) Zidovudine & stavudine are associated with lipodystrophy syndrome

3) Efavirenz is used in the first trimester to prevent HIV transmission to the fetus

4) Commonest toxicity with didanosine is a painful peripheral sensory neuropathy

Chosen Option: 3

Q.62

image 36-The gross section of kidney above depicts

1) Renal Cell Carcinoma

2) Hydatid cyst

3) Polycystic kidney

4) Medullary sponge kidney

Chosen Option: 4

Q.63 All are true about Exenatide EXCEPT


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1) Synthetic GLP-1 analog

2) Adminstered subcutaneously

3) Used for type I diabetes

4) Decreases glucagon release

Chosen Option: 3

Q.64 Physical Quality of Life Index is a composite based on the following EXCEPT

1) Infant mortality rate

2) Literacy rate

3) Maternal mortality ratio

4) Life expectancy at age one

Chosen Option: 3

Q.65 Which is the most striking and specific test to diagnose amyloid in tissue?

1) Congo red + polarized microscopy

2) Methyl violet stain

3) Congo red stain + light microscopy

4) Toluidine stain

Chosen Option: 1

Q.66

This patient came with chronic productive cough and clubbing and coarse rales. What is the diagnosis of the CT scan above?

1) Miliary tuberculosis

2) Multiple cavitating secondaries

3) Interstitial fibrosis

4) Bilateral sacular bronchiectasis

Chosen Option: 2

Q.67 Which of the following is TRUE about GyneFix?

1) It is a T shaped device

2) Risk of expulsion is more

3) It is especially suited for nulliparous women


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4) It contains levonorgestrel

Chosen Option: 4

Q.68

What type of suture is this?

1) Mattress interrupted suture

2) Pare’s suture

3) Purse String suture

4) Halsted’s suture

Chosen Option: 3

Q.69

Which one of the following statements is True regarding the diagrams depicted above?

1) the left picture (red) is a compound bar diagram

2) a frequency polygon can be drawn from the picture on the left (red)

3) the right picture (green) is best used for continuous quantitative data

4) the left picture (red) is best used for qualitative data

Chosen Option: 3

Q.70


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This patient came with anemia. This peripheral smear shows ________

1) spherocytes of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

2) microcytic hypochromic anemia due to iron deficiency

3) target cells of thalassemia

4) macrocytic anemia

Chosen Option: 4

Q.71

This 25 year old lady came with anemia jaundice and joint pains. The following are True EXCEPT

1) She can present with pulmonary syndrome

2) She may have retinopathy

3) HbF and HbA2 will be undetectable

4) Hydroxyurea would help her

Chosen Option: 3

Q.72 Major lipid component in chylomicrons is


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1) Cholesterol

2) Phospholipid

3) Triacylglycerol

4) Free fatty acids

Chosen Option: 2

Q.73

What is this procedure?

1) Colposcopy

2) Culdocentesis

3) Pudendal block

4) D & C

Chosen Option: 2

Q.74 A family consists of 2 parents (already immune) and 4 children who are susceptible to measles. There occurs a primary case of measles in the family and 2 secases occur within a short period of time. The secondary attack rate is about –

1) 50%

2) 33%

3) 67%

4) 25%

Chosen Option: 3

Q.75 Which of the following is TRUE regarding Radiotherapy for Cancer?

1) Thoracic radiation therapy is given concurrently with chemotherapy in patients with Limited Small Cell Lung Carcinoma

2) Radiation therapy is indicated in breast cancer in women > 70years, tumor size < 2cms. and lymph nodes negative

3) Radiation to the axillary lymph nodes prevents the incidence of arm edema after partial mastectomy

4) A rise in PSA after Brachytherapy for prostate cancer indicates recurrence

Chosen Option: 1

Q.76 Which of the following is not a Mullerian anomaly?

1) Imperforate hymen

2) Arcuate uterus

3) DES related uterine anomaly

4) Septate uterus

Chosen Option: 1

Q.77 Politzerization refers to


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1) Inflation in the nostril with an olivary nozzle while the patient sips water

2) Eustachean catheterisation with a micro catheter for aspiration and inflation of middle ear

3) Puncture of tympanic membrane

4) Autoinflation by Valsalva's maneuvre

Chosen Option: 2

Q.78 Regarding prostatectomy which one of the statements is FALSE

1) Intraurethral stents are helpful in the management of men who are grossly unfit (ASA grade 4)

2) Water intoxication and hyponatremia can give rise to CHF

3) Retrograde ejaculation occurs in about 65% of men

4) Perineal prostatectomy (Young) is a commonly done surgical procedure

Chosen Option: 4

Q.79

Identify these two surgical instruments.

1) Needle Holder & Ovum Forceps

2) Artery Forceps & Needle Holder

3) Thumb forceps & Sponge Holder

4) Sponge Holder & Allis Forceps

Chosen Option: 2

Q.80Currently most used endometrial ablation method is

1) Laser ablation

2) Roller ball coagulation

3) Trans cervical resection

4) Thermal ballon ablation


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Chosen Option: 4

Q.81 ‘Fifth Vital Sign’ commonly elicited by anesthesiologists on surgical patients is

1) Core temperature

2) Blood pressure

3) FiO2

4) Pain

Chosen Option: 4

Q.82 Pregnancy rate in copper bearing IUCD is

1) 12 per 100 woman years




Chosen Option: 2

Q.83 Which of the following is TRUE regarding occipital hemianopia

1) Often incongruous hemianopia

2) Riddoch phenomenon is typical

3) All the given options are true

4) Macula is involved

Chosen Option: 2

Q.84 Ottawa ankle rules are used to

1) Decide on immediate vs. delayed treatment of ankle disclocation

2) To decide on treatment option for CTEV

3) To diagnose rupture of Achilles tendon

4) Decide on need of x-rays for possible fracture

Chosen Option: 3

Q.85 The following are True regarding Myasthenia gravis EXCEPT

1) Thymoma or thymic hyperplasia is common

2) Plasmapharesis is useful in the treatment of Myasthenia gravis

3) Antibodies to presynaptic voltage gated channels impair acetylcholine release

4) Bulbar weakness is especially prominent in MuSK antibody positive myasthenia

Chosen Option: 4

Q.86 A 70 year old diabetic and hypertensive patient was being investigated for angina and a coronary angiogram was performed. Two days later, he developed feabdominal discomfort and dyspnea and a mottled skin rash. His great toe appeared black. His BP increased to 180/100. His creatinine was found to have rise

preangio level of 1.2 to 3.6mg/dl. He has eosinophilia. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding this condition.

1) N-acetylcysteine would have prevented this condition

2) Heparin is the treatment of choice

3) This is contrast induced nephropathy

4) Kidney biopsy will show microvessel occlusion with a cleft in the vessel

Chosen Option: 1

Q.87 The following are indicated in the treatment of bacterial corneal ulcer EXCEPT

1) Topical antibiotics

2) Analgesic / antiinflammatory drugs

3) Steroids

4) Cycloplegics like atropine ointment or drops

Chosen Option: 3

Q.88 Which one of the following is considered as ‘Reference Protein’

1) Milk


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2) Meat

3) Egg

4) Fish

Chosen Option: 3

Q.89 Which one of the following is not used as chemical warfare agent?

1) Taurine

2) Cyclosarin

3) Sarin

4) Tabun

Chosen Option: 1

Q.90 The following are True regarding Rotator cuff tendinitis EXCEPT

1) Painful arc of movement causes secondary weakness

2) Steroid injections are contraindicated

3) Injection of local anesthetic helps in diagnosis

4) Acromial beak of bone appears with age

Chosen Option: 2

Q.91 Which mechanism in phototherapy is chiefly responsible for reduction in serum bilirubin?

1) conjugation

2) Structural isomerisation

3) Photooxidation

4) Geometric Photoisomerisation

Chosen Option: 2

Q.92 Infraorbital nerve is injured commonly in

1) Le Fort III fracture

2) Mandibular fracture

3) Blow out fracture of orbit

4) Le Fort I fracture

Chosen Option: 3

Q.93 A normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in

1) Methanol poisoning

2) Salicylate poisoning

3) Diabetic ketoacidosis

4) Diarrhea

Chosen Option: 4

Q.94 Allen's test is useful in evaluation of

1) Presence of cervical rib

2) Digital blood flow

3) Integrity of palmar arch

4) Thoracic outlet compression

Chosen Option: 3

Q.95 Balkan nephropathy is possibly caused by

1) Calcineurin inhibitors

2) Fungal toxin

3) Lead

4) Aristolochic Acid

Chosen Option: 2


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Q.96 Common site of injection of islet cells in islet cell transplant for diabetes mellitus

1) Pelvis

2) Forearm muscles

3) Pancreas

4) Portal vein

Chosen Option: 3

Q.97 A 3 week female infant is brought for ambiguous genitalia and hyperpigmentation of skin. She has hyponatremia and hypokalemia. Which one of the followi

most likely diagnosis? 1) 21 hydroxylase deficiency

2) 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

3) 17,20 lyase deficiency

4) 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency

Chosen Option: 2

Q.98 Which one of the following is the contraceptive of choice for a woman with sickle cell disease

1) IUCD

2) Low dose combined contraceptive pills

3) High dose combined contraceptive pills

4) Depot medroxy progesterone acetate Injection

Chosen Option: 4

Q.99 The following are True regarding Pompholyx EXCEPT

1) 50% of patients have a history of atopy

2) Topical corticosteroids are usually helpful

3) Pruritic ‘tapioca’ vesicles on palms and sides of fingers

4) They are painful but not pruritic

Chosen Option: 4

Q.100 All are 160 kDa family of co-activators EXCEPT

1) Activator of the thyroid & retinoic acid receptor

2) Glucocorticoid receptor interacting protein I

3) CREB binding protein

4) Steroid receptor coactivator I

Chosen Option: 1

Q.101 A middle aged male patient came with history of progressive night blindness followed by decreased vision since childhood. Now he has tubular vision. Retinexamination revealed jet black , spidery spots like bone corpuscles. Which of the following statements is True?

1) The diagnosis is retinitis pigmentosa

2) Most commonly inherited as x-linked recessive

3) The retinal changes typically start at the posterior pole and spread anteriorly

4) Papilledema occurs in later stages

Chosen Option: 1

Q.102


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1) pqrs = yzwx

2) pqrs = zxyw

3) pqrs = wyxz

4) pqrs = xzwy

Chosen Option: 2

Q.103 Which type of pelvis favors face to pubis delivery?

1) Gynaecoid

2) Anthropoid

3) Android

4) Platypelloid

Chosen Option: 2

Q.104 The following are main diagnostic criteria for Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis EXCEPT -

1) Pulmonary infiltrates

2) Distal bronchiectasis

3) Peripheral eosinophilia

4) Bronchial asthma

Chosen Option: 3

Q.105 In hanging, the tension which is required on the ligature to block the trachea is

1) 20Kgs

2) 2Kgs

3) 15Kgs

4) 5Kgs

Chosen Option: 4

Q.106


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The following statements are True regarding the picture depicted above EXCEPT -

1) This is a case of right psoas abscess

2) Baby has an umbilical hernia

3) Baby has a large right inguinal hernia

4) Surgery is indicated for the groin swelling

Chosen Option: 3

Q.107 Most common malignancy that metastasizes to the Spine is

1) Lung

2) Thyroid

3) Breast

4) Prostate

Chosen Option: 4

Q.108 The term cellular pathology was coined by

1) Robert Koch

2) Gregor Mendel

3) Louis Pasteur

4) Rudolf Virchow

Chosen Option: 4

Q.109 Following regimens are used in endometriosis to suppress ovulation & relieve pain, EXCEPT

1) Anastrozole / letrozole is recomended for routine use

2) Cyclical low dose oral contraceptive pills

3) Subcutaneous DMPA (depot medroxyprogesterone acetate)

4) Nafarelin nasal spray

Chosen Option: 1

Q.110 A 6 month infant presented with recurrent episodes of polyuria and dehydration. Lab. tests revealed serum Na of 130 meq/li., K of 3 meq/li Cl of 92 meq/li., bicarbonate of 30 meq/li. pH was 7.48. Ser creat was 0.4 mg/dl. The patient had hypercalciuria and ultrasound showed medullary nephrocalcinosis. Which ofollowing is the most likely diagnosis?

1) Liddle syndrome

2) Gitelman syndrome

3) Bartter syndrome

4) Distal renal tubular acidosis

Chosen Option: 3

Q.111 NICE guidelines for computed tomography in head injury include the following EXCEPT

1) Focal neurological deficit

2) Mild head injury in a patient less than 40 years

3) GCS < 13 at any Point


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4) More than one episode of vomiting

Chosen Option: 2

Q.112 Treatment of choice for molar pregnancy is

1) Sublingual misoprostol

2) Intramuscular carboprost

3) Oxytocin infusion

4) Suction evacuation

Chosen Option: 4

Q.113

What is True regarding the picture depcited above?

1) Rodent ulcer appearance

2) All these options are true

3) Exposure to Solar UV radiation is a risk factor

4) This is basal cell carcinoma which arises from the basal layer of nonkeratinocytes

Chosen Option: 2

Q.114 Maximum dose of Spiranolactone is

1) 400mg/day

2) 100mg/day

3) 160mg/day

4) 50mg/day

Chosen Option: 4

Q.115 MAC for inhalational drugs in anesthesia stands for

1) Minimum Arterial Concentration

2) Maximum Alveolar Concentration

3) Mean Alveolar Concentration

4) Minimum Alveolar Concentration


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Chosen Option: 4

Q.116 Parotitis and orchitis are common manifestations of

1) Diphtheria

2) Measles

3) Rubella

4) Mumps

Chosen Option: 4

Q.117 A 40 year old multiparous lady presented with menorrhagia of 6 months duration. On examination, she is found to have a bulky uterus and an 8x8cm. adnexathe right side. She underwent total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo- oopherectomy. Histopathological examination of the adnexal mass showeExner bodies. What is the type of ovarian tumor?

1) Clear cell tumor

2) Granulosa cell tumor

3) Endodermal sinus tumor

4) Dysgerminoma

Chosen Option: 2

Q.118 Ross procedure involves

1) Replacement of aortic valve with pulmonic homograft

2) Replacement of aortic valve with autologous pulmonic valve and implantation of pulmonic valve homograft

3) Replacement of mitral valve with tissue prosthesis and repair of tricuspid valve

4) Replacement of aortic valve with porcine valve and repair of pulmonary valve

Chosen Option: 1

Q.119 Schwartzman reaction is an example of

1) Type II hypersensitivity reaction

2) None of the options

3) Type I hypersensitivity reaction

4) Type III hypersensitivity reaction

Chosen Option: 4

Q.120 Optional timing of administration of prophylactic antibiotic for surgical patients is

1) At the induction of anesthesia

2) One hour after induction

3) One hour prior to induction of anesthesia

4) Any time during the surgical procedure

Chosen Option: 1

Q.121 All the following are helpful in the initial treatment of severe hypercalcemia associated with Hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT

1) Pamidronate

2) Hydration with saline

3) Forced diuresis with loop diuretics

4) Glucocorticoids

Chosen Option: 1

Q.122


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This is the fundus picture of a lady patient, who was on estrogen containing pills, and came now with acute deterioration of vision. What is the likely diagnos

1) central retinal vein occlusion

2) diabetic background retinopathy

3) central retinal artery occlusion

4) hypertensive retinopathy

Chosen Option: 2

Q.123

What is the most likely diagnosis of the picture above?

1) Down's syndrome

2) Pierre-Robin syndrome

3) Noonan's syndrome

4) Williams syndrome

Chosen Option: 4

Q.124


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What does this picture show?

1) Burns Marshall method

2) Mauriceau Smellie Veit technique

3) Pinod's maneuvre

4) Lovset's maneuvre

Chosen Option: 1

Q.125 Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding Carcinoma rectum?

1) Hartmann's operation is done in old debilitated patients

2) Early morning spurious diarrhea and tenesmus can occur

3) Growth confined to rectal wall is stage A of Modified Duke staging

4) Per rectal examination can diagnose only 10% of cases

Chosen Option: 1

Q.126 Characteristic antibodies of autoimmune hepatitis include all of the following EXCEPT

1) Anti -CCP antibodies

2) ANAs

3) Smooth muscle antibodies

4) Anti LKM antibodies

Chosen Option: 1

Q.127


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Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis of the picture depicted above?

1) Herpes zoster oticus

2)CSOM with tubotympanic perforation

3) CSOM with attic perforation & cholesteatoma

4) ASOM with bulging eardrum

Chosen Option: 4

Q.128

This 60 year old male -diabetic and smoker- came with 3 hours of substernal pain. Which of the following statements is True regarding his ECG

1) Heart rate is 45 / min

2) ECG is suggestive of hyperkalemia

3) Patient should be given IV lidocaine

4) ECG shows acute anterior myocardial infarction

Chosen Option: 2

Q.129


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Identify the anatomical structures - X,Y,Z of the neck depicted above in that order.

1) anterior belly of digastric, digastric triangle, stylohyoid

2) omohyoid, muscular triangle, submentalis

3) posterior belly of digastric, digastric triangle, platysma

4) posterior belly of digastric, carotid triangle, omohyoid

Chosen Option: 1

Q.130


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Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis from this x-ray?

1) Right pleural effusion

2) Hydatid cyst right lung

3) Right hydropneumothorax

4) Perforated abdominal viscus

Chosen Option: 4

Q.131 Scleroma is caused by

1) Aspergillus fumigatus

2) Rhinosporidium seeberi

3) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

4) Candida guilliermondii

Chosen Option: 3

Q.132 Which one of the following Cerebral Blood Flow patterns is likely in a patient with Huntington’s disease

1) Bilateral reduction in blood flow to caudate nucleus

2) Hyperemia to basal ganglia with reduced flow to other areas in brain

3) Decreased blood flow to temporal lobes

4) Bilateral reduction in blood flow starting from occipital cortex and spreading anteriorly

Chosen Option: 3

Q.133 A person is having a tidal volume of 500 ml, a vital capacity of 4700 ml and an inspiratory capacity of 3500 ml. His expiratory reserve volume will be

1) 1200 ml

2) 3000ml

3) 700 ml

4) 4200 ml

Chosen Option: 3

Q.134


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This young patient came with acute right lower abdominal pain. What is the possible diagnosis?

1) Intestinal obstruction due to Meckel’s diverticulum

2) Acute appendicitis

3) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

4) Acute salpingoophoritis

Chosen Option: 2

Q.135 Which of the following is TRUE regarding human hair?

1) Barr bodies present in the cortex layer of hair shaft help to determine XX genotype

2) Hair changes are identical in scalds and burns

3) ABO group can be determined from a single hair bulb from any part of the body

4) Roots of hair from adults, in contrast to children, will dissolve very rapidly in a solution of caustic potash

Chosen Option: 1

Q.136 Hill Sach’s lesion is related to

1) Glenoid labrum

2) Subscapularis muscle

3) Head of humerus

4) Anterior capsule of shoulder

Chosen Option: 1

Q.137 Scheuermann's Disease occurs in

1) Adolescents

2) Elderly

3) Infants

4) Adults

Chosen Option: 3

Q.138


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This picture depicts photos of 4 patients being asked to open the mouth as much as possible and stick the tongue out without phonating. Which of the followistatements is TRUE regarding these pictures?

1) They depict varying degrees of hypoglossal nerve paralysis

2) They are used in Forensic Medicine for identification purpose

3) They depict Mallampati Classification

4) They depict different stages of tonsillitis and quinsy

Chosen Option: 2

Q.139 Which of the following statements is True regarding Tibalone used in Hormone replacement therapy

1) Recommended dose is 25mg /day

2) Does not prevent hot flushes

3) It causes endometrial atrophy

4) It is a nonsteroidal drug

Chosen Option: 2

Q.140 Prerequisites for forceps application include the following EXCEPT

1) Informed consent from patient

2) Membranes should be ruptured

3) Bladder should be empty

4) Cervix should be at least 8 cms dilated

Chosen Option: 2

Q.141 Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Ethambutol

1) Not recommended in younger children

2) Peripheral sensory neuropathy is a rare complication

3) Optic neuritis is the most serious adverse effect

4) First line bacteriocidal antituberculosis drug

Chosen Option: 4

Q.142 Which of the following is True regarding Hypospadias?

1) It is attributed to failure of complete urethral tubularisation in the fetus

2) It is seen in 1 in 1500 boys

3) Urethra opens proximally and dorsally

4) Urethral opening is most commonly in the perineum

Chosen Option: 3

Q.143 Lower fungi which have nonseptate hyphae and which form sporangiospores are called

1) Deuteromycetes

2) Phycomycetes

3) Ascomycetes

4) Basidiomycetes

Chosen Option: 2

Q.144 Which one of the following vaccines is contraindicated in children with egg allergy?

1) MMR

2) Yellow Fever


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3) DPT

4) BCG

Chosen Option: 3

Q.145

Based on the picture depcited above, the following are True statements EXCEPT

1) Commonest and most troublesome complication is neuralgia

2) Ramsay Hunt syndrome includes similar lesions on the ophthalmic division of V nerve & cornea

3) Early treatment with valaciclovir 1 gram tid is helpful

4) The patient would have a past history of varicella

Chosen Option: 2

Q.146


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What is the most likely diagnosis of the x-ray depicted above?

1) osteoclastoma

2) osteoid osteoma

3) chondrosarcoma

4) osteogenic sarcoma

Chosen Option: 4

Q.147

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis from the picture depicted above?

1) Aphthous ulcer

2) Dentigenous ulcer

3) Syphilitic gumma

4) Leukoplakia

Chosen Option: 3


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Q.148 What is the category and color of the drug box for sputum smear positive cases who are 'treated after default' under the RNTCP?

1) Category 1, Green

2) Category 2, Blue

3) Category 1, Red

4) Category 2, Yellow

Chosen Option: 2

Q.149 All are common causes of stridor EXCEPT

1) foreign body in larynx and trachea

2) laryngomalacia

3) atrophic laryngitis

4) multiple papillomas of larynx

Chosen Option: 3

Q.150

Which one of the following is most likely diagnosis of the picture of cervix depicted above in this woman with leukorrhea?

1) Candidal infection

2) Trichomonas vaginalis infection

3) Gardnerella infection

4) Carcinoma cervix

Chosen Option: 1


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Q.151 All are malignant tumors of nasal cavity EXCEPT

1) Stewart's granuloma

2) Olfactory neuroblastoma

3) Ringertz tumor

4) Malignant melanoma

Chosen Option: 3

Q.152 A 60 year old male patient who is a known diabetic, has come with choreoathetosis. He also has skin hyperpigmentation and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Allfollowing investigations will help in establishing the diagnosis EXCEPT

1) Transferrin saturation

2) Genetic testing for C282Y mutation

3) Ultrasounography (abdominal & cardiac)

4) Liver biopsy and hepatic iron index

Chosen Option: 2

Q.153 Which one of the following is implicated in the etiology of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

1) Chlamydial infection

2) Perforation of dermoid cyst

3) Gastric perforation

4) Liver metastases in ovarian cancer

Chosen Option: 4

Q.154 Which of the following women would be an absolute contraindication for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills as per WHO category 4

1) Cancer cervix

2) History of stroke

3) Epilepsy

4) Smoker < 35 years

Chosen Option: 3

Q.155

1) pqr = wxy

2) pqr = yxw

3) pqr = xwy


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4) pqr = wyx

Chosen Option: 3

Q.156 Malignant Otitis Externa is a

1) Malignant condition

2) Infective condition

3) Autoimmune condition

4) Pre-malignant condition

Chosen Option: 2

Q.157 Kleihauer – Betke Test is used for

1) Detecting the karyotype in structurally normal fetus

2) Diagnosing fetal infections

3) Testing cephalopelvic disproportion

4) Evaluating the volume of feto maternal hemorrhage

Chosen Option: 4

Q.158 Which of the following is True regarding absence seizures

1) Attack lasts for 60 to 90 seconds

2) Hyperventilation often precipitates an attack

3) Onset of disease in the first year of life

4) Attack followed by postictal confusion

Chosen Option: 2

Q.159 Among the clinical signs of pregnancy in the first trimester, Goodell’s sign refers to

1) Dusky hue of the vaginal walls at 8th wk of gestation

2) Increased pulsations felt through the lateral fornices at 8th week of gestation

3) Regular & rhythmic uterine contractions during bimanual palpation as early s 4-8 wks

4) Softening of cervix as early as 6 wks

Chosen Option: 1

Q.160 Among the following, the least common cause of acute upper GI bleeding is

1) Varices

2) Vascular ectasia

3) Ulcer

4) Mallory Weiss tear

Chosen Option: 2

Q.161

What does the intraoperative photograph above depict?


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1) Intussusception

2) Fallopian tube

3) Transverse colon

4) Meckel’s diverticulum

Chosen Option: 4

Q.162 Which of the following is NOT a feature of Severe Preeclampsia?

1) Urine output < 400 ml /24 hours

2) HELLP syndrome

3) Urinary protein excretion > 2 G / day

4) Platelet count < 1 lakh /cu.mm.

Chosen Option: 3

Q.163 The following organisms are indicative of fecal pollution of water EXCEPT

1) Clostridium perfringens

2) Fecal Streptococi

3) Halophilic vibrio

4) E.coli

Chosen Option: 3

Q.164 Buprenorphine belongs to

1)Full agonist at 'k' receptors

2) Partial agonist at 'mu' receptors

3) Partial agonist at 'k' receptors

4) Full agonist at 'mu' receptors

Chosen Option: 2

Q.165 Which one of the following is FALSE regarding Chronic maxillary sinusitis?

1) Patient complains of postnasal discharge

2) Normal xray effectively excludes hypertrophic variant

3) FESS is indicated for failure of medical treatment or presence of sinonasal polys

4) Headache is absent except during exacerbation of acute sinusitis

Chosen Option: 2

Q.166 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the practice of Rapid Sequence Induction for anesthesia?

1) Cricoid pressure is contraindicated

2) Propofol is avoided as it can cause hypotension

3) Done in patients likely to have a difficult intubation

4) Can be used in a patient with full stomach

Chosen Option: 3

Q.167


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Select the FALSE statement regarding the disease depicted in the picture above?

1) There is muscle atrophy and resultant hypotonia

2) Loss of fat from sucking pads of the cheeks is the earliest sign

3) Besan panjiri is an energy dense food used in treatment

4) This is nonedematous severe childhood undernutrition

Chosen Option: 4

Q.168

The above abnormality in x-ray skull can be seen in the following condition


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EXCEPT

1) Paget’s disease

2) Histiocytosis X

3) Multiple Myeloma

4) Hyperparathyroidism

Chosen Option: 2

Q.169

What is the diagnosis of this fracture?

1) Monteggia fracture type II

2) Side swipe fracture

3) Galeazzi fracture

4) Monteggia fracture type I

Chosen Option: 1

Q.170 The following statements are True about normal pregnancy EXCEPT

1) RBC mass increases by 20-30%

2) Blood volume increases by 40-50%

3) Mean arterial pressure increases by 15-20%

4) Cardiac output increases by 40-50% towards term

Chosen Option: 3

Q.171 The following statements are True regarding Epilepsy EXCEPT

1) Serum level of Prolactin increases dramatically after tonic clonic convulsions

2) Changes in memory /perception and" blackouts" are not features of compex partial seizures

3) Jacksonian epilepsy is a spreading seizure activity

4) Absence Seizures are briefer and more frequent without postictal confusion

Chosen Option: 2

Q.172 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding vocal cords

1) Two muscles adduct (close) the Vocal cords

2)One muscle adjusts the length of the Vocal cords

3) One muscle abducts (opens) the vocal cords

4) One muscle adjusts the tension of the Vocal cords

Chosen Option: 4

Q.173 Loss of taste sensation from the anterior part of the tongue is associated with lesion of which one of the following nerves?

1) IX

2) VII

3) XII


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4) V

Chosen Option: 1

Q.174 Which one of the following is NOT associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia?

1) Chronic lead poisoning

2) Thalassemia

3) Iron deficiency

4) Hereditary Spherocytosis

Chosen Option: 4

Q.175

Identify this mosquito?

1) Anopheles

2) Aedes

3) Mansonoides

4) Culex

Chosen Option: 1


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Q.176 Pneumatoceles in chest xray are characteristically seen in pneumonia due to

1) Streptococcus pyogenes

2) Hemophilus influenza

3) Streptococcus pneumoniae

4) Staphylococcus aureus

Chosen Option: 4

Q.177 Which of the following is TRUE regarding Epistaxis

1) Commonly from Kiesselbach venous plexus in the anterior septum

2) Pneumatic nasal tamponade is a treatment option

3) Patient is kept in sitting and slight leaning forward position while compressing the nares

4) Topical phenylephrine is contraindicated as it increases blood pressure

Chosen Option: 2

Q.178 Plaster of Paris is hemihydrated

1) Calcium phosphate

2) Calcium sulfate

3) Calcium citrate

4) Calcium carbonate

Chosen Option: 1

Q.179 All the following are ECG features of Hyperkalemia EXCEPT

1) Prolonged PR interval

2) Tall peaked T waves

3) Sine wave pattern

4) Prolonged QT interval

Chosen Option: 4

Q.180 The vessel which needs to be ligated in a patient with a bleeding peptic ulcer is

1) Gastroduodenal artery

2) Superior pancreatico-duodenal artery

3) Left gastric artery

4) Left gastroepiploic artery

Chosen Option: 1

Q.181 Choose the FALSE statement from the following

1) Diazepam is more potent as well as more efficacious CNS depressant than pentobarbitone

2) Aspirin is less potent as well as less efficacious analgesic than morphine

3) Frusemide is a less potent but more efficacious diuretic than metalozone

4) Pethidine is a less potent but equally efficacious analgesic as morphine

Chosen Option: 4

Q.182 In Mitochondria, urea cycle is integrated to

1) Oxidation of fatty acids

2) TCA cycle

3) Electron Transport chain

4) Oxidative phosphorylation

Chosen Option: 1

Q.183


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Match the above HLA associations and choose the best match.

1) pqrs = xwyz

2) pqrs = wxzy

3) pqrs = ywzx

4) pqrs = zxwy

Chosen Option: 2

Q.184 Which of the following is True regarding Carcinoma Endometrium?

1) transvaginal sonography showing endometrial thickening of 6-8 mm. excludes Ca endometrium

2) Papanicolaou smear is a very sensitive test for diagnosis

3) 90% present as abnormal bleeding

4) most common in the 3rd & 4th decade of life

Chosen Option: 3

Q.185 The risk of rupture of lower segment Cesarean section scar during labor is

1) less than 0.4%

2) 1%

3) 2%

4) 4%

Chosen Option: 2

Q.186 Commonest congenital anomaly seen in Pre-gestational Diabetes is

1) Renal atresia

2) Duodenal atresia

3) Caudal regression syndrome

4) Meningimyelocoele

Chosen Option: 2

Q.187 Henoch Schonlein purpura is characterized by the following EXCEPT

1) Glomerulonephritis

2) Hematocchezia

3) Thrombocytopenia

4) Palpable purpura

Chosen Option: 3

Q.188 Hypoxic death of brain tissue results in

1) Liquefactive necrosis

2) Fibrinoid necrosis


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3) Gangrenous necrosis

4) Coagulative necrosis

Chosen Option: 4

Q.189

This elderly male came with a history of recurrent attacks of pain and swelling in the great toe in the past. This is the present x-ray of the hands. The diagnosconfirmed by

1) HLA B27

2) Polarised microscopy of tissue fluid aspirate

3) X-ray of lumbosacral spine

4) Anti CCP antibodies

Chosen Option: 2

Q.190 Which among the following is the earliest sign of compartment syndrome is

1) Paresthesias

2) Pulselessness

3) Stretch pain

4) Loss of movement

Chosen Option: 3


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Q.191 Abraded collar in gunshot injuries indicates

1) Type of projectile

2) Direction of firing

3) Velocity of firing

4) Distance of firing

Chosen Option: 4

Q.192 A mother in a village has brought her 1 month baby with a complaint of fever to the PHC. You find that the baby's respiratory rate is 69 /minute. The baby is

but able to feed; the baby does not have chest indrawing or stridor. There is no history of convulsions. According to the RCH program, the baby's illness is clas

1) Severe Pneumonia

2) Very severe disease

3) No pneumonia: Cough or cold

4) Pneumonia

Chosen Option: 4

Q.193 The following are true regarding antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT

1) Lurasidone is effective in acute decompensation of schizophrenia & has a low incidence of weight gain / hyperlipidemia

2) Olanzapine & clozapine have been linked to risk of new onset type 2 diabetes mellitus

3) Clozapine should not be given in patients with a past history of neuroleptic / antipsychotic malignant syndrome

4) Quetiapine use can lead to cataract formation

Chosen Option: 3

Q.194 The performance and analysis of routine measurements aimed at detecting changes in the environment or in the health status of the population is called

1) Situational analysis

2) Monitoring

3) Surveillance

4) Evaluation

Chosen Option: 2

Q.195 Causes of Diffues Hyperpigmentation include the following EXCEPT

1) Busulfan adminstration

2) Nelson's syndrome

3) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

4) Addison's disease

Chosen Option: 2

Q.196 Blade of grass lesion is found in

1) Osteoporosis

2) Thalassemia

3) Paget's disease

4) Carcinoma Prostate

Chosen Option: 4

Q.197 IgG immunoflorescence deposits at dermo-epidermal junction as band like floresence is seen in both involved and uninvolved skin of patients with one of thefollowing diseases

1) Discoid lupus erythematosis

2) Mixed connective tissue disease

3) Scleroderma

4) SLE

Chosen Option: 4

Q.198 Scorpion Sting may present with the following EXCEPT

1) Arrhythmias


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2) Hypertension and pulmonary edema

3) Hypothermia

4) Salivation and Lacrymation

Chosen Option: 2

Q.199 The following statements are True regarding keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes) EXCEPT

1) Topical 3% sodium chloride solution is an effective treatment

2) Seen in Sjogren’s syndrome

3) Can occur in vitamin A deficiency

4) It can be a hereditary disorder

Chosen Option: 3

Q.200 The following are True regarding Hyaline Membrane Disease EXCEPT

1) Basic abnormality is deficiency of surfactant

2) Occurs in babies born past-dates

3) Intratracheal surfactant helps

4) Prenatal diagnosis by low amniotic fluid L/S ratio

Chosen Option: 2

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