Ncm 106 Questionnaire

7/29/2019 Ncm 106 Questionnaire

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/ncm-106-questionnaire 1/9

Which of the following best describes neurogenic shock?

a) Results from circulating volume

b) Results from compromised cardiac output

c) Results from loss of vasomotor tone that includes arteriolar & venous dilatation

d) Results from severe allergic reaction

Answer: letter c

- neurogenic shock results from loss of vasomotor tone that includes arteriolar & venous dilation

2. During the initial stage of shock, the following manifestations are expected EXCEPT:a. Elevated BP, elevated temperature

b. Tachycardia, restlessness

c. Tachypnea, respiratory alkalosis

d. Diaphoresis, pallor

• Answer: Letter a

- Elevated BP, elevated temperature are not expected manifestations during initial stage of shock. There is

hypotension & decreased body temperature

3. During the decompensated stage of shock, the following signs and symptoms occur EXCEPT:

a. oliguria

b. elevated BUN

c. hyperkalemia

d. metabolic alkalosis

• Answer: letter d

- metabolic alkalosis is not expected during decompensated stage of shock. Instead metabolic acidosis occurs. This is

due to blood stasis that enhances lactic acid production

4. The following are causes of altered LOC in shock EXCEPT:

a. cerebral hypoxia

b. acidosis

c. accumulation of waste products

d. release of blood from the liver


- release of blood from the liver is not a cause of altered LOC in shock. Cerebral hypoxia, acidosis, accumulation of

waste products are causes of altered LOC in shock

5. The desired position during shock is:

a. Modified trendelenburg

b. Flat position

c. Semi – Fowlers’s position

d. Lateral position

• Answer : letter a

- Modified trendelenburg is the desired position of the client during shock. The patient is placed in supine position

with the legs elevated at 20-30 degree angle, the hips slightly higher than the torso. To increase venous return to the heart & to

strengthen contractility of the heart. Provide head pillow support to prevent cerebral venous congestion & an increase ICP

6. The most commonly used plasma expander is:

a. 0.9% NaCl

b. Dextran

c. Lactated Ringer’s

d. Whole blood

• Answer: letter b

- Dextran is most commonly used plasma expander

7. Which of the following is administered to reverse acidosis?

a. Na bicarbonate

b. Heparin

c. Steroids

d. Cimetidine

• Answer: Letter a

- Sodium bicarbonate is administered to reverse acidosis

8. Hypovolemic shock occurs when blood loss is:

a. 5% - 10%

b. 15% - 25%

c. 10% - 15%



d. 1% - 5%

• Answer: letter b

- hypovolemic shock occurs when blood loss is 15% - 25%

9. The client has intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation device. This is primarily meant to:

a. decrease cardiac workload

b. decrease stroke volume

c. increase preload

d. maintain current coronary circulation• Answer: letter a

- intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation device increases coronary artery and myocardial tissue perfusion & reduces

left ventricular workload. During diastole, the balloon is inflated to allow more blood from the aorta to fill the coronary artery.

During systole, the balloon is deflated to allow free flow of blood via the aorta

10. The following are assessment parameters that indicate adequate fluid replacement in shock EXCEPT:

a. urine output is 50 ml/hr

b. CVP = 10cm water

c. Hct = 48 vol. %

d. Serum potassium = 6 mEq/L


- serum potassium of 6mEq/L is elevated. This may indicate dehydration, causing retention of electrolytes.

Therefore, fluid replacement is not adequate.

Burn: 1. The newly admitted client has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or

bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. How should this injury be categorized?

A. Superficial

B. Partial-thickness superficial

C. Partial-thickness deep

D. Full thickness

2. The newly admitted client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears red, has blisters, and

is very painful. How should this injury be categorized?

A. Superficial

B. Partial-thickness superficial

C. Partial-thickness deep

D. Full thickness

3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to use to prevent infection by cross-contamination in the client

who has open burn wounds?

A. Handwashing on entering the client's room

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe

C. Administering the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine

D. Changing gloves between cleansing different burn areas

4. The client who experienced an inhalation injury 6 hours ago has been wheezing. When the client is assessed,

wheezes are no longer heard. What is the nurse’s best action?

A. Raise the head of the bed.

B. Notify the emergency team.

C. Loosen the dressings on the chest.

D. Document the findings as the only action.

5. Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose lev el is 90 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s best

action?

A. Notify the emergency team.

B. Document the finding as the only action.

C. Ask the client if anyone in her family has diabetes mellitus.

D. Slow the intravenous infusion of dextrose 5% in Ringer's lactate.

6. All of the following laboratory test results on a burned client's blood are present during the emergent phase. Which

result should the nurse report to the physician immediately?

A. Serum sodium elevated to 131 mmol/L (mEq/L)



B. Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L)

C. Arterial pH is 7.32

D. Hematocrit is 52%

7. The client has experienced an electrical injury, with the entrance site on the left hand and the exit site on the left

foot. What are the priority assessment data to obtain from this client on admission?

A. Airway patency

B. Heart rate and rhythm

C. Orientation to time, place, and personD. Current range of motion in all extremities

8. Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client's respiratory efforts are currently adequate?

A. The client is able to talk.

B. The client is alert and oriented.

C. The client's oxygen saturation is 97%.

D. The client's chest movements are uninhibited

9. The burned client's family ask at what point the client will no longer be at increased risk for infection. What is the

nurse’s best response?

A. “When fluid remobilization has started.”

B. “When the burn wounds are closed.”

C. “When IV fluids are discontinued.”

D. “When body weight is normal.”

10. The burned client relates the following history of previous health problems. Which one should alert the nurse to

the need for alteration of the fluid resuscitation plan?

A. Seasonal asthma

B. Hepatitis B 10 years ago

C. Myocardial infarction 1 year ago

D. Kidney stones within the last 6 month

11. The burned client on admission is drooling and having difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s best first action?

A. Assess level of consciousness and pupillary reactions.

B. Ask the client at what time food or liquid was last consumed.

C. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi.

D. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants.

12. Which intervention is most important to use to prevent infection by autocontamination in the burned client

during the acute phase of recovery?

A. Changing gloves between wound care on different parts of the client's body.

B. Avoiding sharing equipment such as blood pressure cuffs between clients.

C. Using the closed method of burn wound management.

D. Using proper and consistent handwashing.

13. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of rehabilitation after burn injury?

A. “I will never be fully recovered from the burn.”

B. “I am considered fully recovered when all the wounds are closed.”

C. “I will be fully recovered when I am able to perform all the activities I did before my injury.”

D. “I will be fully recovered when I achieve the highest possible level of functioning that I can.”

14. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client in the rehabil itative phase of recovery from a burn injury?

A. Acute Pain

B. Impaired Adjustment

C. Deficient Diversional Activity

D. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements

15. Which statement made by the client with facial burns who has been prescribed to wear a facial mask pressure

garment indicates correct understanding of the purpose of this treatment?

A. “After this treatment, my ears will not stick out.”

B. “The mask will help protect my skin from sun damage.”

C. “Using this mask will prevent scars from being permanent.”

D. “My facial scars should be less severe with the use of this mask.”

16. The client, who is 2 weeks postburn with a 40% deep partial-thickness injury, still has open wounds. On taking the

morning vital signs, the client is found to have a below-normal temperature, is hypotensive, and has diarrhea. What is

the nurse’s best action?



A. Nothing, because the findings are normal for clients during the acute phase of recovery.

B. Increase the temperature in the room and increase the IV infusion rate.

C. Assess the client’s airway and oxygen saturation.

D. Notify the burn emergency team.

17. The client has a deep partial-thickness injury to the posterior neck. Which intervention is most important to use

during the acute phase to prevent contractures associated with this injury?

A. Place a towel roll under the client's neck or shoulder.

B. Keep the client in a supine position without the use of pillows.C. Have the client turn the head from side to side 90 degrees every hour while awake.

D. Keep the client in a semi-Fowler’s position and actively raise the arms above the head every hour while awake.

18. In assessing the client's potential for an inhalation injury as a result of a flame burn, what is the most important

question to ask the client on admission?

A. “Are you a smoker?”

B. “When was your last chest x-ray?”

C. “Have you ever had asthma or any other lung problem?”

D. “In what exact place or space were you when you were burned?”

19. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the burned client is moving into the fluid remobilization phase of

recovery?

A. Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity

B. Increased peripheral edema, decreased blood pressure

C. Decreased peripheral pulses, slow capillary refill

D. Decreased serum sodium level, increased hematocrit 20. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to use to prevent infection by cross-contamination in the

client who has open burn wounds?

A. Handwashing on entering the client's room

B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe

C. Administering the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine

D. Changing gloves between cleansing different burn areas

1. ANS: A

The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury (color that is black, brown, yellow, white or red; no

blisters; pain minimal; outer layer firm and inelastic).

2. ANS: B

The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a superficial partial thickness injury (color that is pink or red; blisters; pain

present and high).

3. ANS: A

Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms from another person or the environment are transferred to the client.

Although all the interventions listed above can help reduce the risk for infection, only handwashing can prevent

crosscontamination.

4. ANS: B

Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they may lose effective movement of air.

When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard and neither are breath sounds. The client requires the establishment of an

emergency airway and the swelling usually precludes intubation.

5. ANS: B

Neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of the burn injury in the emergent phase increases liver glucose production

and release. An acute rise in the blood glucose level is an expected client response and is helpful in the generation of energy

needed for the increased metabolism that accompanies this trauma.

6. ANS: B

All these findings are abnormal; however, only the serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious, life-threatening

responses could result. With such a rapid rise in the potassium level, the client is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac

dysrhythmias and death.

7. ANS: B

The airway is not at any particular risk with this injury. Electric current travels through the body from the entrance site to the

exit site and can seriously damage all tissues between the two sites. Early cardiac damage from electrical injury includes

irregular heart rate, rhythm, and ECG changes.

8. ANS: C

Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk, have good respiratory

movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the maintenance of oxygen saturation within the

normal range.



9. ANS: B

Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time has passed since the

burn injury, the client remains at great risk for infection as long as any area of skin is open.

10. ANS: C

It is likely the client has a diminished cardiac output as a result of the old MI and would be at greater risk for the development

of congestive heart failure and

pulmonary edema during fluid resuscitation.

11. ANS: CDifficulty swallowing and drooling are indications of oropharyngeal edema and can precede pulmonary failure. The client’s

airway is in severe jeopardy and intubation is highly likely to be needed shortly.

12. ANS: A

Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the same client's body, causing infection

of a previously uninfected area. Although all techniques listed can help reduce the risk for infection, only changing gloves

between carrying out wound care on difference parts of the client’s body can prevent autocontamination.

13. ANS: D

Although a return to preburn functional levels is rarely possible, burned clients are considered fully recovered or rehabilitated

when they have achieved their highest possible level of physical, social, and emotional functioning.

14. ANS: B

Recovery from a burn injury requires a lot of work on the part of the client and significant others. Seldom is the client restored

to the preburn level of functioning. Adjustments to changes in appearance, family structure, employment opportunities, role,

and functional limitations are only a few of the numerous life-changing alterations that must be made or overcome by the

client. By the rehabilitation phase, acute pain from the injury or its treatment is no longer a problem.

15. ANS: D

The purpose of wearing the pressure garment over burn injuries for up to 1 year is to prevent hypertrophic scarring and

contractures from forming. Scars will still be present. Although the mask does provide protection of sensitive newly healed skin

and grafts from sun exposure, this is not the purpose of wearing the mask. The pressure garment will not change the angle of

ear attachment to the head.

16. ANS: D

These findings are associated with systemic gram-negative infection and sepsis. This is a medical emergency and requires

prompt attention

17. ANS: C

The function that would be disrupted by a contracture to the posterior neck is flexion. Moving the head from side to side

prevents such a loss of flexion.

18. ANS: D

The risk for inhalation injury is greatest when flame burns occur indoors in small, poorly ventilated rooms. although smoking

increases the risk for some problems, it does not predispose the client for an inhalation injury.

19. ANS: A

The “fluid remobilization” phase improves renal blood flow, increasing diuresis and restoring fluid and electrolyte levels. The

increased water content of the urine reduces its specific gravity

20. ANS: A

Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms from another person or the environment are transferred to the client.

Although all the interventions listed above can help reduce the risk for infection, only handwashing can prevent

crosscontamination.

Thyroid:

1. Which of the following assessment findings characterize thyroid storm?

a.) increased body temperature, decreased pulse, and increased blood pressure.

b.) increased body temperature, increase pulse, and increased blood pressure

c.) increased body temperature, decreased pulse, and decreased blood pressure

d.) increased body temperature, increased pulse, and decreased blood pressure

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following nursing intervention are appropriate?

Select all that apply.

a.) instill isotonic eye drops as necessary

b.) provide several, small, well-balanced meals

c.) provide rest periods

d.) keep environment warm

e.) encourage frequent visitors and conversation

f.) weigh the client daily



3. Early this morning , a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse tina assesses the

client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 40.5 degree celcuis, tachycardia and extreme restlessness. What is the most

likely cause of these signs?

a.) diabetic ketoacidosis

b.) thyroid crisis

c.) hypoglycemia

d.) tetany

4. Which of the following should be the priority goals of care after thyroid surgery? Select all that apply. a.) to decrease body temperature

b.) to promote bowel elimination

c.) to increase urine output

d.) to prevent joint contracture deformity

e.) to decrease the heart rate

5. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism?

a.) Risk for imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess

b.) Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing

c.) body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema

d.) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excesss

6. A patient is admitted to the hospital in thyrotoxic crisis. On physical assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to

find

a.) hoarseness and laryngeal stridor

b.) bulging eyeballs and arrhythmias

c.) elevated temperature and signs of heart failure

d.) lethargy progressing suddenly to impairment of consciousness

7. A nurse is monitoring a client with Graves' disease for signs of thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm). Which of the following signs

and symptoms, if noted in the client, will alert the nurse to the presence of this crisis? Select all that apply.

a.) Bradycardia

b.) Fever

c.) Sweating

d.) Agitation

e.) Pallor

1. B

- thyroid storm is characterized by SNS activation. Thyroid hormones potentiate effects of cathecolamines

(epinephrine/norepinephrine). Therefore, all vital signs will be increased.

2. A, B, C, and F

- the client with hyperthyroidism may experience exopthalmos. This requires instillation of eye drops to prevent dryness and

ulceration of the cornea. The client experiences weight loss because of hypermetabolism. Several, small, well-balanced meals

are given to improve nutritional status of the client and daily weights should be monitored. Weight is the most objective

indicator of nutritional status. The client is usually exhausted due to restlessness and agitation. Frequent rest periods help the

client regain energy.

2. A, B, C, and F

- the client with hyperthyroidism may experience exopthalmos. This requires instillation of eye drops to prevent dryness and

ulceration of the cornea. The client experiences weight loss because of hypermetabolism. Several, small, well-balanced meals

are given to improve nutritional status of the client and daily weights should be monitored. Weight is the most objective

indicator of nutritional status. The client is usually exhausted due to restlessness and agitation. Frequent rest periods help the

client regain energy.

3. B

- Thyroid crisis usually occurs in the first 12 hours after thyroidectomy and causes exaggerated signs of hyperthyroidism, such as

high fever, tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. Diabetic ketoacidosis is more likely to produce polyuria, polydipsia, and

polyphagia; hypoglycemia, to produce weakness, tremors, profuse perspiration, and hunger. Tetany typically causes

uncontrollable muscle spasms, stridor, cyanosis, and possiblyasyphyxia.

4. A and E

- An elevated temperature and heart rate after thyroid surgery are indicative of thyroid crisis

5. D.

- In the client with hyperthyroidism, excessive thyroid hormone production leads to hypermetabolism and increased nutrient

metabolism.

6. C.



- a hyperthyroid crisis results in marked manifestations of hyperthyroidism, with fever tachycardia, heart failure, shock,

hyperthermia, agitation, N/V/D, delirium, and coma. Although exophthalmos may be present in the patient with Gravs' dz, it is

not a significant factor in hyperthyroid crisis. Hoarsness and laryngeal stridor are characteristic of the tetany of

hypoparathyroidism, and lethargy progressing to coma is characteristic of myxedema coma, a complication of hypothyroidism.

7. B,C,D

- Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) is an acute, potentially life-threatening state of extreme thyroid activity that represents a

breakdown in the body's tolerance to a chronic excess of thyroid hormones. The clinical manifestations include fever greater

than 100° F, severe tachycardia, flushing and sweating, and marked agitation and restlessness. Delirium and coma can occur.

Heart failure:

1. Which of the following assessment finding would elicit specific information regarding the left ventricular function of a patient

with left ventricular failure?

a. Assessing peripheral and sacral edema.

b. Assessing jugular vein distention.

c. Monitoring for organomegaly.

d. Listening to lung sounds.

2. Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure?

a. Crackles

b. Hepatic engorgement

c. Hypotension

d. Arrhytmias

Rationale:

Crackles in the lungs are a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. These sounds are caused by fluid backing up into the

pulmonary system. Arrhythmias can be associated with both right and left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure causes

hypertension secondary to an increased workload on the system.

3. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following responses?

a. Tachycardia

b. Hypotension

c. Decreased myocardial contractility

d. Bradycardia

Rationale:

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes tachycardia and increased contractility.

4. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heat failure by increasing

ventricular contractility?

A. Inotropic agents

B. Beta-adrenergic Blockers

C. Calcium Channel Blockers

D. Diuretics

Rationale:

Inotropic agents are administered to increase the force of the heart’s contractions, thereby increasing ventricular

contractility and ultimately increasing cardiac output.

5. Which of the following classes of medications protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking catecholamines and

sympathetic nerve stimulation?

A. Nitrates

B. Beta-adrenergic Blockers

C. Narcotics

D. Calcium channel blockers

Rationale:

Beta-adrenergic blockers work by blocking beta receptors in the myocardium, reducing the response to catecholamines

and sympathetic nerve stimulation. They protect the myocardium, helping to reduce the risk of another infarction by

decreasing the workload of the heart and decreasing myocardial oxygen demand.

6. After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by auscultation of crackles in the

lungs?

A. Left-sided heart failure

B. Right-sided heart failure

C. Pulmonic valve malfunction

D. Tricuspid valve malfunction

Rationale:



The left ventricle is responsible for the most of the cardiac output. An anterior wall MI may result in a decrease in left

ventricular function. When the left ventricle doesn’t function properly, resulting in left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in

the interstitial and alveolar spaces in the lungs and causes crackles.

7. Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)?

A.Ventricular dilation

B. Systemic hypertension

C. Aortic valve malfunction

D. Increased atrial contractionsRationale:

Rapid filling of the ventricles causes vasodilation that is auscultated as S3. Increased atrial contraction or systemic

hypertension can result is a fourth heart sound. Aortic valve malfunction is heard as a murmur.

8. The nurse is aware that one of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heart

failure by increasing ventricular contractility?

a. Beta-adrenergic blockers

b. Calcium channel blocker

c. Diuretics

d. Inotropic agents

9. Mr. Mendoza who has suffered a congestive heart failure is too weak to move on his own. To help the client avoid pressure

ulcers, Nurse Celia should:

a.Turn him frequently.

b. Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

c. Reduce the client’s fluid intake.

d. Encourage the client to use a footboard.

10. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart failure. The breath sounds commonly auscultated in clients with heart fai lure

are:

a. Tracheal

b. Fine crackles

c. Coarse crackles

d. Friction rubs

Rationale:

Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli and commonly occur in clients with heart failure.

DM:

1. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in an emergency room. Which finding would a nurse

expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?

a. comatose state

b. decreased urine output

c. increased respiration and an increase in pH

d. elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate level

2. A nurse provides instructions to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse recognizes accurate

understanding of measures to prevent diabetic ketoacidosis is when the client states:

a. I will stop taking my insulin if I'm too sick to eat

b. I will decrease my insulin dose during times of illness

c. I will adjust my insulin dose according to the level of glucose in my urine

d. I will notify my physician if my blood glucose level is higher than 250 mg/dL

3. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase the priority nursing action is to prepare to:

a. Administer regular insulin intravenously

b. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously

c. Correct the acidosis

d. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor.

4. When a client is in diabetic ketoacidosis, the insulin that would be administrated is:

a. Human NPH insulin

b. Human regular insulin

c. Insulin lispro injection

d. Insulin glargine injection



5.Which adaptations should the nurse caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis expect the client to exhibit? Select all that

apply:

a. Sweating

b. Low PCO2

c. Retinopathy

d. Acetone breath

e. Elevated serum bicarbonate

6. A client’s blood gases reflect diabetic acidosis, except: a. Increased pH

b. Decreased PO2

c. Increased PCO2

d. Decreased HCO3

7. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

a. Kussmaul’s respirations and a fruity odor on the breath

b. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain

c. Decreased respirations and increased urine output.

d. Cheyne-stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

8. Cardiac monitoring is initiated for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse recognizes that this measure is

important to identify

a. electrocardiographic (ECG) changes and dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia.

b. fluid overload resulting from aggressive fluid replacement.

c. the presence of hypovolemic shock related to osmotic diuresis.

d. cardiovascular collapse resulting from the effects of hyperglycemia.

9. While hospitalized and recovering from an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis, the patient calls the nurse and reports feeling

anxious, nervous, and sweaty. Based on the patient's report, the nurse should

a. obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick.

b. administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.

c. have the patient eat a candy bar.

d. have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.

10. A patient recovering from DKA asks the nurse how acidosis occurs. The best response by the nurse is that

a. insufficient insulin leads to cellular starvation, and as cells rupture they release organic acids into the blood.

b. when an insulin deficit causes hyperglycemia, then proteins are deaminated by the liver, causing acidic by-products.

c. excess glucose in the blood is metabolized by the liver into acetone, which is acidic.

d. an insulin deficit promotes metabolism of fat stores, which produces large amounts of acidic ketones.

Documents

Ncm 106 Questionnaire