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For IIT-JAM, JNU, GATE, NET, NIMCET and Other Entrance Exams

Pattern of questions : MCQs

This paper contains 60 Multiple Choice Questions(part A=15, part B=35 and part C=10)

Each question in Part 'A' carries two marks, Part 'B' carries 2 marks and Part 'C' carries 10 marks.

There will be negative marking@ 25% for each wrong answer in part A & B. There will be no negative marking in part C.

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Total marks : 200

Duration of test : 3 Hours

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PART A (1-15)

1. Two cards are drawn together form a pack of 52 card (a set of traditional playing cards), at

random. The probability that one is a spade and other is a heart is

(1) 13/102

(2) 3/20

(3) 47/100

(4) 29/34

2. The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last year. This year, the price of A

is increased by 25% and that of B by Rs. 50,000. If their prices are now in the ratio 9 : 10,

the price of A last year was

(1) Rs.3,60,000

(2) Rs. 4,50,000

(3) Rs. 4,80,000

(4) Rs. 5,00,000

3. The inverse of the function f(x) = ax bcx a

−−

; x ≠ ac

is:

(1) y = (ax –b)/(cx – a)

(2) y = (cx – a)/ (ax – b)

(3) y = (cx – b)/(bx – a)

(4) y = (bx – a)/ (cx –b)

4. The following activates the alternative pathway of complement

(1) Lip polysaccharides

(2) Some viruses and virus-infected cells


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(3) Fungal and yeast cell walls

(4) All of the above

5. A patient is suffering from a deficiency in the activity of acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)

carboxylase.

Which one of the following metabolites is most likely to accumulate in the patient’s serum?

(1) Short-chain fatty acids

(2) Long-chain fatty acids

(3) Ketone bodies

(4) Malonyl CoA

6. Which one of the following enzyme-catalyzed reactions generates a high -energy

phosphate bond?

(1) The phosphorylation of glucose

(2) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate

(3) 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate

(4) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

7. Chymotrypsinogen in the native state and reduced unfolded state is loaded in well A and B

respectively. They are electrophoresed and stain, one of the following results is likely to be

observed.

(1) Protein in well A would have moved longer distance than that in well B

(2) Protein in well A would have moved shorter distance than that in well B

(3) Protein in well A and B would have moved the same distance

(4) Protein in well A and B would not move at all


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8. A triode differs form a diode in the way that

(1) It can amplify a signal

(2) It has vacuum inside

(3) It has a heated cathode

(4) Its current is caused by the photo electric effect

9. A ball bounces higher on high altitudes than on plains because

(1) the air is more pure at higher altitudes

(2) the rarefied pull due to gravity is less at higher altitudes

(3) the pressure at higher altitudes is higher than that on plains

(4) downward pull due to gravity is less at higher altitudes

10. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is

(1) Gold

(2) Carbon

(3) Hydrogen

(4) Silicon

11. The products of reaction between zinc and warm sodium hydroxide solution are

(1) Sodium zincate and Water

(2) Sodium zincate and Hydrogen

(3) Zinc hydroxide and Hydrogen

(4) Zinc carbonate and Hydrogen

12 The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3, (n ∈ N) is

(1) 0

(3) 1

(3) 2

(4) None of these


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13. With increasing dilution of an electrolyte the equivalent conductivity and molecular

conductivity will

(1) Not change at all

(2) Acquire a maximum value

(3) Acquire a minimum value

(4) None of the above

14. While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we keep the upper part hot and lower

part cool so that

(1) Convection may be stopped,

(2) Radiation may be stopped

(3) Heat conduction is easier downwards

(4) It is easier and convenient to do so.

15. Consider the cyclic process ABCA on a sample of 2.0 mol of an ideal gas

as shown in figure. The temperatures of the gas at A and B are 300 K and 500 K

respectively. A total of 1200 J heat is withdrawn from the sample in the process. The

work done by the gas in part BC is

(1) –4520 J

(2) –3320 J

(3) 4520 J

(4) 3320 J


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PART B (16-50)

16. Isostacy denotes

(A) Balance reached between the areas which have suffered intensive seismic activity

(B) Balance reached between granitic and basaltic bases

(C) Equilibrium condition existing between various rock formations

(D) None of the above

17. In the regular echinoids

(A) Mouth is at the centre of the apical disc

(B) Mouth lies outside the apical disc

(C) New cells are added from the peistome

(D) Madreporite plates are absent

18. Greywacke is differentiated from lithic arenites on the basis of

(A) Silica content

(B) Feldspar content

(C) Percentage of matrix

(D) Presence or absence of cement

19. Flysch sequences are characteristically formed in

(A) Eugeosynclines

(B) Miogeosynclines

(C) Orogenic troughs

(D) None of the above

20. The most optimum condition for the formation of porphyritic texture is

(A) Differential cooling under different environments

(B) Cooling uniformly under the same conditions

(C) Cooling differently under same environments

(D) Differential cooling under the same environments

21. Which among the following is the correct sequence of minerals of increasing stability

resulting from continued weathering of rocks?

(A) Biotite, K – feldspar, muscovite, quartz


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(B) Olivine, muscovite, hornblend, biotite

(C) Augite, quartz, biotite, muscovite

(D) Hornblend, muscovite, K- feldspar, quartz

22. Which of the following is useful in the correlation of coal and oil – bearing strata, in tracing

patterns of climatic fluctuations and migrating vegetational belts

(A) Foraminifera

(B) Plant fossils

(C) Spores and pollen

(D) Vertebrate fossils

23. The characteristics features of a glacial deposit is presence of

(A) Unaltered feldspar in a sandstone with poor sorting

(B) Angular debris consisting of single rock type, often with striation marks.

(C) Mixed angular and rounded fragments of various rocks of all size, many with criss –

cross striations

(D) A mixture of clay and course material with graded bedding and sole marks

24. Primary sedimentary structures are formed at the time of deposition or shortly thereafter.

The character of these structures depends mainly on which of the following factors?

1. Current velocity

2. Water depth

3. Composition of source rocks

4. Grain size

5. Structures of provenance

6. Sedimentation rate

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(B) 1, 2,4 and 6

(C) 1, 3, 5 and 6

(D) 3, 4, 5 and 6


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25. Consider the following statements

Bowmen’s reaction principle

1. Helps in predicting the order of minerals from any crystallization magma

2. Helps in predicting the nature of assimilation of country rocks by an anhydrous basic

magma

3. Is based on calculation of free energy of formation of mineral from a crystallization

magma

4. Is based on experimental results on simple silicate systems and field observations of co-

magmatic rock associations.

Of these statements

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(C) 1 and 3 are correct

(D) 2 and 4 are correct

26. Some monoclinic crystals possess a single symmetry plane parallel to (010). Hence

sections which are cut normal to this plane would

(A) Show straight or symmetrical extinction

(B) Show maximum extinction angle

(C) Show minimum extinction angle

(D) Remain extinct in all positions of rotation

27. Gondite is best defined as a

(A) Silicate rock associated with manganese ores

(B) Mn – oxide rock containing quartz

(C) Mn-silicate rock dominated by spessartine-rich garnet and quartz and containing

rhodonite with minor Mn-oxides.

(D) Mn-silicate-carbonate rock with minor Mn-oxides.


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28. Assertion (A) : There is increasing recognition of multiepisodes of reworking particularly in

the Proterozoic metamorphic belts

Reason (R) : relicts of Archaean granulite facies rocks occur in metamorphic belts of

younger age.

(A) Both A and B are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and B are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

29. Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of rocks as per increasing grade of

metamorphism?

(A) Slate – phyllite – granulite – amphibolites

(B) Phyllite – slate – amphibolites – granulite

(C) Slate – phyllite – amphibolites – granulite

(D) Phyllite – slate – eclogite – granulite

30. Bombay high is the highest producing oilfield in Indi(A) Which of the following is true of this

oilfield?

(A) We find the large gravity anomalies in this area

(B) We find large seismic anomalies in this area

(C) It is a topographic high having large gravity anomalies

(D) It is a topographic high having large seismic anomalies

31. The stratigraphic horizon in Gondwana system showing mixed facies

(A) Talchir series

(B) Umia series

(C) Panchet series

(D) Raniganj series

32. The crustal thickness is maximum under

(A) Island arc

(B) Subduction zone


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(C) Folded mountain

(D) Shield area

33. Colloform structure pertains to

(A) Liesegang banding

(B) Igneous lamination

(C) Organic structures

(D) None

34. Hyposolvus granite are those characterised by

(A) Absence of perthitic feldspar

(B) Presence of a single perthitic feldspar

(C) Absence of microcline

(D) Absence of orthoclase

35. Which of the following is not an enantiomorphic form?

(A) Pedion

(B) Tetraoid

(C) Trapezohedron

(D) Hexahedron

36. Kimberlite pipe is mostly found in

(A) Spreading site

(B) Subduction zone

(C) Transform fault

(D) Intraplate regions

37. The Earth's crust is thickest at

(A) New Delhi

(B) Dhaka

(C) Islamabad

(D) Kathmandu


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38. An ideal concentric fold is the one in which the thickness of the beds measured

(A) Parallel to the axial plane remains constant

(B) Parallel to the isogons remains constant

(C) Normal to the bedding planes is variable

(D) Normal to the bedding planes remains constant

39. Which one of the following criteria is most suitable for determining the internal constitution

of the Earth because of

(A) Compositions of volcanic emanations

(B) Compositions of meteorites

(C) Refracted seismic waves

(D) Reflected seismic waves

40. The deep foci earthquakes are practically restricted to the

(A) Himalayan belt

(B) Mediterranian- Alpine belt

(C) MOR of the Atlantic

(D) Deep sea trench areas of the pacific

41. Which one of the following is a concordant intrusion forming structural basin?

(A) Sill

(B) Phacolith

(C) Lopolith

(D) Laccolith

42. Explosive eruptions often involve rhyolitic magmas. This is because of their

(A) High silica content

(B) High water content

(C) Low volatile solubility

(D) Deep seated nature

43. Assertion (A) : Gastropods are largely used for identifying rocks of different ages.


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Reason (R) : Gastropods are found in sedimentary rocks of all ages from the Cambrian

onwards.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

44. E-W striking axial plane foliation and NW - NE striking bedding are observed on the NE

limb of a plunging syncline. The approximate direction of plunge of the synclinal axis is

towards the

(1) North

(2) South

(3) East

(4) West

45. The bedding is not vertical along the hinge line in respect of

(1) Reclined fold

(2) Recumbent fold

(3) Vertical fold

(4) Plunging upright fold

46. What are the two most abundant elements by mass found in Earth's crust?

(1) Aluminum and iron

(2) Sodium and chlorine

(3) Calcium and carbon

(4) Oxygen and silicon


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47. Which sample best shows the physical properties normally associated with regional

metamorphism?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

48. Compared to dull and rough rock surfaces, shiny and smooth rock surfaces are most likely

to cause sunlight to be

(1) Reflected

(2) Refracted

(3) Scattered

(4) Absorbed

49. As the water content of rock increases, the melting point ____.

(1) First increases, then decreases

(2) Remains the same

(3) Decreases

(4) Increases

50. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____.


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(1) Fine-grained rocks

(2) When a molten mass of rocks cools quickly

(3) On Earth's surface

(4) Coarse-grained rocks

Part-C (51 - 60)

51. (a) In general, the probability of flooding decreases when there is an increase in the amount of

(1) Precipitation

(2) Infiltration

(3) Runoff

(4) Snow melt

(b) A map view of surface air movement in a low-pressure system is shown below.

The air near the center of this low-pressure system usually will

(1) Evaporate into a liquid

(2) Reverse direction

(3) Rise and form clouds

(4) Squeeze together to form a high-pressure system


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(c) Which of the following sharks has a tail that can be as long as its body?

(1)Tiger shark

(2) Great white shark

(3)Thresher shark

(4) Weasel Shark

52. (a) Choose the correct statement about graphite:

(1) lt crystallizes in a hexagonal system.

(2) lt has good conductivity of heat and electricity.

(3) It has a high refractoriness.

(4) All the above are correct

(b) Most of the graphite deposits In Orissa are found in the

(1) Granitic rocks.

(2) Khondalites rocks.

(3) Gondite rocks.

(4) Charnockites rocks.

(c) Malachite and Azurite are:

(1) Sulphides.

(2) Carbonates.

(3) Oxides.

(4) Hydroxides.

53. (a) Which state is the leading producer of gypsum?


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(1) Rajasthan.

(2) Tamil Nadu.

(3) Gujarat.

(4) Uttar Pradesh.

(b) The temperature at which air becomes saturated and produces liquid is called

(1) The saturation point

(2) The dew point

(3) The condensation point

(4) Relative humidity

(c) What does La Nina bring to the southeastern United States?

(1) Warmer winters

(2) Extremely cold winters

(3) Hot summers

(4) Cooler than normal summers

54. (a) Which of the following ocean currents flow without obstruction or barriers around Earth?

(1) Gulf Stream

(2) California Current

(3) Antarctic Circumpolar Currents

(4) Aghulas Currents

(b) A temperate lake is most likely to show thermal stratification and limited mixing of surface

and deeper water during the ___________ season.

(1) Winter

(2) Spring


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(3) Summer

(4) Fall

(c) Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

(1) Coal

(2) Hydropower

(3) Natural gas

(4) Petroleum

55. (a) If you are using biomass as a source of energy you might be:

(1) Heating with coal.

(2) Heating with natural gas.

(3) Heating with petroleum.

(4) Heating with a wood stove.

(b) In which decade was wind-generated electricity first sold to the public?

(1) 1940s

(2) 1960s

(3) 1980s

(4) 2000s

(c) In which century was the first electrical power plant built?

(1) 1600's

(2) 1700's

(3) 1800's

(4) 1900's


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56. (a) Which of the following energy sources produces the most electricity in the United States?

(1) Coal

(2) Hydropower

(3) Natural gas

(4) Uranium (nuclear power)

(b) Which of the following scientists was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1911 for the discovery of

the radioactive elements, radium and polonium?

(1) John Dalton

(2) Dmitri Mendeleev

(3) Emil Fischer

(4) Marie Curie

(c). Lead-206 is the final product of the radioactive decay series named the:

(1) Thorium series

(2) actinium series

(3) Uranium series

(4) neptunium series

57. (a) The temperature levels in a nuclear reactor are maintained primarily by the use of

(1) Shielding

(2) coolants

(3) Moderators

(4) control rods

(b) As the temperature of a sample of a radioactive element decreases, the half-life will


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(1) Decrease

(2) increase

(3) Remain the same

(4) none of these

(c) What kind of radiation will travel through an electric field on a pathway that remains

unaffected by the field?

(1) A proton

(2) a gamma ray

(3) An electron

(4) an alpha particle

58. (a) Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?

(1) Dispersal of weed species

(2) Erosion of soil

(3) Release of pollutants into waterways

(4) All of the above.

(b) Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood,

based on river height information?

(1) Satellite and radar images

(2) Flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models

(3) River gauging stations



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(c) A flash flood is a flood that:

(1) Is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river

(2) Occurs in urban areas

(3) Occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration

(4) Is caused by the blocking of drains.

59. (a) A flood can vary in:

(1) Size

(2) speed of water flow

(3) Duration

(4) all of the above.

(b) When a river's water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:

(1) The water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary 'zero' level

(2) The water level is 10 meters above mean sea level

(3) The water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary 'zero' level

(4) It will flood.

(c) Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?

(1) Bridges and other structures in waterways

(2) The size and windiness of a river

(3) Vegetation in and around a river


60. (a) The characteristic(s) of computed tomography (CT) which give(s) it a distinct advantage

over conventional radiography is/are:

(1) Higher visibility of detail (resolution).


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(2) Better contrast sensitivity (low contrast detects ability).

(3) Lower noise.

(4) Fewer artifacts.

(b) What power of an optical telescope is most affected by turbulence in Earth's atmosphere?

(1) Light-gathering power.

(2) Resolving power.

(3) Magnifying power.

(4) None of these

(c) Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named

(1) Fermi

(2) angstrom

(3) Newton

(4) tesla


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Answer key Que 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Ans 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 4 2 2 1 2 1 1

Que 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 1 3 1 3 3

Que 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

Ans 2 3 1 2 4 4 4 1 4 4 3 1 2 3 4Que 46 47 48 49 50 51(a) 51(b) 51(c) 52(a) 52(b) 52(c) 53(a) 53(b) 5 3(c) 54(a)Ans 4 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 1 3Que 54(b) 54(c ) 55(a) 55(b) 55 (c) 56(a) 56(b) 56(c ) 57(a) 57( b) 57(c ) 58(a) 58(b) 58(c ) 59(a)Ans 3 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 4

Que 59(b) 59(c) 60(a) 60(b) 60(c)Ans 3 4 2 2 1

HINTS AND SOLUTION

PART - A(1 - 15)

1.(1) The probability of drawing two cards

(one is spade and other is a heart)

13 131 1

522

c . c

c=

( )13 3 2

52 51

× ×=

×


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13102

=

2.(1) Last year’s ratio is 4 : 5

Let price of A = 4x

and price of B = 5x

This years if would be

1254x : 5x 50000 9 : 10

100× + =

5x 95x 50000 10

=+

⇒ 50x = 45x + 450000

5x + 45,000

x = 90,000

Price of A last year was 4x = 4 90,000 = 3,60,000

3.(1) Given function ( ) ax bf x

cx a−=−

ax

c≠

To find inverse

Let ax by

cx a−=−

⇒ cxy – ay = ax – b

x(cy – a) = ay – b

ay b

xcy a

−=−

ay

c≠


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so inverse function is terms of x is ( )1 ax bf x

cx a− −=

−

4.(4) The alternative pathway of complement activation is antibody independent. This pathway

of complement activation is triggered by almost any foreign substance.

5.(4) The first committed and irreversible step in fatty acid synthesis is the ATP dependent

carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form malonyl CoA. This reaction is catalyzed by acetyl CoA

carboxylase. Therefore, a patient suffering from a

deficiency in the activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase would accumulate malonyl CoA.

6.(2) Conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol pyruvate generate a high-energy

phosphate bond. This reaction is catalyzed by enolase.

7.(2) Chymotrypsim in native and reduced unfolded state is loaded in well A and B then after

electrophoresis and staining, protein in well A would have moved shorter distance than that

in well B.

8.(1) A triode differs from a diode in the way that it can amplify a signal [∵ Triode work as an

amplifier].

9.(4) A ball bounces at high altitudes than on plains because

(g)plains > (g)high altitude

where g → Gravitational acceleration.

So, downward pull due to gravity is less at higher altitudes.

10.(2) The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is carbon

11.(2) Zn + 2 NaOH + 2H2O → Na2 [Zn(OH)4]+ H2

Sodium zincate


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12.(1) in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 = in[1 + i + i2 + i3] = in [1 + i – 1 – i] = 0.

13.(2) With increasing dilution of an electrolyte the equivalent conductivity and molecular

conductivity will acquire a maximum value.

14.(1) While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we keep the upper part hot and lower

part cool so that convection may be stopped.

15.(1) The change in internal energy during the cyclic process is zero. Hence, the heat supplied

to the gas is equal to the work done by it. Hence,

WAB + WBC + WCA = –1200 J ...(1)

The work done during the process AB is

WAB = PA(VB – VA)

= nR(TB – TA)

= (2.0 mol) (8.3 J/mol – K) 200 K

= 3320 J

The work done by the gas during the process CA is zero as the volume remains constant.

From (1)

3320 J + WBC = –1200 J

or WBC = –4520 J

= –4520 J

PART – B (16 - 50)

16.(1) Mainly isostacy is the term which covers the earth crust's all seismic characters along with the rebound of the Earth’s crust.


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17.(1) The regular echinoid has the mouth at the centre of the apical disc, because there is the regular symmetry.

18.(3) When the amount of the matrix is greater than the 15% then the sandstone is called wacke and when less than the 15% , the sandstone is called arenite.

19.(3) Flysch deposits are the synkenematic deposition. So it is mainly formed in the orogenic troughs.

20.(3) Porphyritic texture is formed due to differential cooling rate (different for groundmass and porphyroclast).

21.(1) Follow the goldich's stability series of the minerals which is actually the overturned sequence of the Bowmen's reaction series.

22.(3) Spores and pollen study (palynology) is the most significant in the case of correlation of the coal bearing strata.

23.(1) (a) The glacial region the unaltered feldspar is very indicative. In glacial region the sorting and the roundness of the grains are less.

24.(2) The formation of the sedimentary structures are formed due to the different factors like grain size, current velocity, water depth etc.

25.(4) Bowmen's reaction series indicate the gradual crystallisation along with the solid line descent and liquid line of descent.

26.(1) The plane obviously basal plane and which will show symmetric extinction.

27.(3) When the Mn silicate, spessartite garnet rich sediment suffered metamorphism, then the rock which is formed is called Gondite.

28.(1) Try to find out the relation in between assertion and reason.In this case the reason is true and also the correct explanation for the assertion.

29.(3) Vesuvian type of volcanic eruption mainly show delayed eruption and high viscosity.

30.(3) A. Bombay high has large gravity anomaly and the topographic high, which are the main characteristics of this basin

31.(2) The umia series in the Gondwana system show mixed facies, shallow marine and also

lacustrine environment.


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32.(3) Folded mountain region is the convergent plate boundary where the thickness of the crust

is maximum with respect to the other plate tectonic condition.

33.(1) Mainly colloform structure are special type of banding which is called liesegang banding.

34.(2) Hyposolvous condition where the two felidspar ( alite and anorthite) are present which

brings about the perthite texture.

35. (4) Either of a pair of objects related to each other as the right hand is to the left, that is, as

mirror images that cannot be reoriented so as to appear identical. An object that has a

plane of symmetry cannot be an enantiomorph because the object and its mirror image are

identical.

36. (4) Kimberlite pipe is mainly found in intraplate regions where tectonic activity does not affect

the region

37.(4) Kathmandu is situated in Nepal which is in Himalayan mountain region so it is convergent

plate boundary, so it will have the highest thickness of the earth crust

38.(1) Suprataneous fold is class 1A fold, Where on an uneven surface the directional

compaction takes place.

39. (4) Reflected seismic waves are reflected from the different boundaries of the internal

structure of the Earth.

40.(4) It depends on mainly the angle of the subducted plate.

41.(3) Concordant structure means the more or less same structure of the intruded body with the

country rock

42.(1) High silica content makes the magma more viscous which makes the eruption more

explosive.

43.(2) It is due to the range of the age of the gastropod and the preservation potential of them.

44. (3) The plunge of the fold axis in this case will be towards east because the axial plane

foliation indicates the strike of the axial plane, that is E-W. Noe in the NE limb the bedding

NW-NE. So the plunge direction is towards east.

45. (4) Beds are horizontal at the hinge line in the case of upright fold.


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46. (4) The most abundant element in the earth's crust is oxygen, making up 46.6% of the Earth's

mass. Silicon is the second most abundant element (27.7%), followed by aluminum (8.1%),

iron (5.0%), calcium (3.6%), sodium (2.8%), potassium (2.6%). and magnesium (2.1%).

These eight elements account for approximately 98.5% of the total mass of the earth's crust.

47.(1) Sample A is a metamorphic rock. This is determined by the bands (lines) found in the rock

sample. Knowing that the sample is metamorphic with bands it can be inferred that the

sample is gneiss.

48.(1) Shiny materials will reflect sunlight similar to what happens with ones image in a mirror. This

is also simulated with a dark and light shirt on a sun filled day. The dark shirt will absorb the

light (warm) as where the light colored shirt will reflect the sunlight (cool).

49.(3) The presence of the water in its vapor phase causes the melting point to decrease and the

rock to melt and absorb the vapor.

50.(4) Intrusive igneous rocks are formed from magma that cools and solidifies underground.

These rocks are coarse grained. The mineral grains in such rocks can generally be

identified with the unaided eye.

PART - (3)(51 - 60)

51. (a) (2) The other choices have to do with an increase in water amount. Infiltration has to do with

water being placed into the ground; not on the surface.

(b)(3) The winds around a Low are counterclockwise and in. This motion will take the air toward

the center then up in the atmosphere. This causes a rise in evaporation and eventually

cloud formation. A Low is consistent with Lousy weather. A High is consistent with Dry

weather.

(c)(3) Thresher sharks are large lamniform sharks of the family Alopiidae found in all temperate

and tropical oceans of the world; the family contains three species, all within the genus

Alopias and has a tail that can be as long as its body.


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52. (a) (4) Natural graphite is an allotrope of elemental carbon, which crystallizes in the hexagonal

system. Graphite can conduct electricity due to the vast electron delocalization within the

carbon layers (a phenomenon called aromaticity). The conductive properties of powdered

graphite allowed its use as a semiconductor substitute in early carbon microphones.

Graphite has a high refractoriness which is used to hold molten metal.

(b)(2) The major graphite zone of Orissa is coincident with the migmatised quartz- garnet -

sillimanite - graphite schist of khondalite suite and its contact with medium - grained granite

gneiss.

(c)(2) Azurite and malachite are simple copper carbonates and have similar chemical

compositions. When they grow together, they carry the properties of the two minerals.

Because they are both copper based minerals, this duo is a powerful conductor of energy.

53. (a) (1) Rajasthan is the leading producer of gypsum. About 90% of the total Indian production

of gypsum comes from western and north-western Rajasthan having a total reserve of

1013.07 million tones.

(b)(2) The saturation point is the maximum amount of water vapor that a particular volume of air at

a given temperature can hold. The condensation point is the temperature and pressure at

which water vapor turns into liquid water. Absolute humidity is the mass of water vapor in a

given volume of air. Relative humidity is the ratio of actual amount of water vapor held in the

atmosphere compared with the maximum amount that the air could hold and is influenced

by temperature and atmospheric pressure.

(c)(1) La Nina can bring warm winters to the southeast and cooler-than-normal winter

temperatures to the northwest United States. It is the cold counterpart of El Nino. La Nina's

strong easterly winds bring cold ocean water to the surface in the eastern Pacific and

causes increased rainfall in the western Pacific. The jet stream rather than coming through

the Pacific Northwest is diverted over Alaska and into the Great Lakes region.

54. (a) (3) The Antarctic Circumpolar Current is the most powerful ocean current system on Earth

and exerts a strong influence on climate. It circles Earth in the southern hemisphere and


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Page 30

connects the three great ocean basins-Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific. Unlike in the Northern

Hemisphere, there are no land masses to break up this large, continuous stretch of water.

(b)(3) During the summer, the surface water warms up must faster than the deep water. The

warmer surface water is less dense than the cooler, deep water, so it stays on the surface.

The wind mixes the surface water but only near the surface. The lake tends to become

stratified, with a warmer upper layer or epilimnion and a cooler lower layer or hypolimnion.

The boundary between the two is called a thermocline.

(c)(2) Renewable energy sources don't run out or can be replenished in a very short time. For

example, the water cycle replenishes river water for hydropower daily. Also, the sun shines

and the wind blows every day. These are renewable energy sources.

55. (a) (4) Biomass is an energy source that comes from organic matter (anything once living) like

wood, crops and animal waste. People have been burning wood to heat their homes and

cook their food for thousands of years. This makes biomass the energy source that has

been used the longest. Biomass is a renewable energy source because plants can be re-

grown, and animals always produce waste.

(b)(1) Humans have been using wind energy for centuries to do things like sail boats. Individual

windmills were originally used to pump water out of the ground. In 1941 the first large-scale

wind turbine, the Putnam-Smith Wind Turbine, was built in Castleton, VT, and generated

1.25 megawatts (1250 kW) of power. Its electricity was sold to the Central Vermont Public

Service Corporation for sale to customers.

(c)(3) The Edison Company built the first large-scale, permanent power plant, Pearl Street Power

Station that opened on September 4, 1882 in New York. The steam-driven plant was rated

at 100 kilowatts and served 500 customers. On September 30, 1882, the first commercial

hydroelectric power plant opened in Appleton, Wisconsin, rated at 12 kilowatts. It initially

serviced the Appleton and Vulcan paper mills as well as the home of the Appleton Paper Mill

president.


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56. (a) (1) According the to the U.S. Energy Information Administration's 2009 numbers, the

breakdown of electricity generation in the United States is as follows:

Nonrenewable Sources Renewable Sources

45.9% Coal 7% Hydropower

22.0% Natural Gas 1.9% Wind

20.9% Uranium (nuclear) 0.7% Biomass

0.9% Petroleum (oil) 0.4% Geothermal

0.3% Other

(b)(4) The Royal Academy of Sciences, at the session on the 7th of November of this year,

decided to award the Nobel Prize for Chemistry for 1911 to Madame Marie Sklodowska

Curie, Professor at the Faculty of Sciences of Paris, "in recognition of the part she has

played in the development of chemistry:

• By the discovery of the chemical elements radium and polonium;

• By the determination of the properties of radium and by the isolation of radium in its pure

metallic state; and finally,

• by her research into the compounds of this remarkable element."

(c)(3) Lead (Pb) has four stable isotopes: 204

Pb, 206

Pb, 207

Pb, 208

Pb. Lead-204 is entirely a

primordial nuclide and is not a radiogenic nuclide. The three isotopes lead-206, lead-207,

and lead-208 represent the ends of three decay chains called the uranium series (or radium

series), the actinium series, and the thorium series, respectively.

57. (a) (2) Because heat flows from warm objects to colder objects, the coolant liquid is used to

absorb heat generated by the reactor. The coolant prevents temperatures in the reactor

from overheating (meltdown). The coolant liquid carries the unused heat to an outside

cooling tower--there is a large cooling tower at Nine Mile 2. Some of the heat will be sent to

a boiler to generate steam and turn the turbines that generate electricity. Shielding prevents


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Page 32

radiation leaks; moderators slow down nuclear reactions; control rods absorb neutrons and

halt the reaction.

(b)(3) Half-life depends on time. Factors like temperature, pressure, and volume do not affect the

half life. So it remains the same.

(c)(2) Particles with charges will be deflected. The only kind of radiation given that has no charge

is a gamma ray. So gamma ray remains unaffected by the electric field.

58. (a) (4) Floods can have negative environmental consequences, such as soil erosion, release of

pollutants and excess sediments and nutrients into waterways and the ocean, dispersal of

weed species, and negative impacts on fish and other aquatic life. Floods can also have

positive environmental consequences, such as recharging groundwater systems, filling

wetlands, moving useful nutrients around the landscape, and triggering breeding events (for

example, of water birds).

(b)(2) Floodplain hydraulic models and flood maps are used to estimate which areas will be

inundated based on river height information. Satellite and radar images, rain gauges and

river gauging stations are used to estimate river heights.

(c)(3) Flash floods are defined by the speed of flooding, not the source or location of flooding.

While flash floods are often caused by heavy rainfall, they can also result from other events,

such as drain blockages and bursts or the flooding of a river.

59. (a) (4) The size, duration and water flow speed of floods can vary. The volume, rate of rise and

areal extent (i.e. the total area under flood waters) of flooding can also vary.

(b)(3) River height is the level of water in a river as measured by a river gauging station and is

expressed in meters above either the Australian Height Datum (i.e. mean sea level) or an

alternative arbitrary 'zero' level, depending on the location.

(c)(4) Many factors can affect the size of a flood, including rainfall intensity, weather conditions

prior to a rainfall event, tidal and storm surges, dams and other man-made and natural water

storages, catchment size and shape, soil types in a catchment, vegetation in and around a


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Page 33

waterway, the size and windiness of a waterway, levees, bridges and other structures in

waterways and catchments, and urbanization.

60. (a) (2) CT is superior to radiography only in terms of higher contrast sensitivity (low contrast

detects ability). It has less visibility of detail. Also, CT does not have lower noise or fewer

artifacts generally.

(b)(2) Resolving power depends on the smallest angular size features that can be sharply imaged;

due to atmospheric turbulence, these features are most affected by "twinkling."

(c)(1) Fermi - A unit of length equal to 10-15 meter (one femtometer), used in nuclear physics. It is

similar to the diameter of a proton.

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