toefl ibt çıkmış soruları set 2 kitap 1

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ONLINETOEFL.ORG TOEFL iBT ÇIKMIŞ SORULARI SET 2 KİTAP 1

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TOEFL iBT

TEST 1


TOEFL iBT ÇIKMIŞ SORULARI SET 2 KİTAP 1 ONLINETOEFL.ORG

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This section measures your ability to understand academic passages in English. The Reading section is divided into separately timed parts. Most questions are worth 1 point, but the last question for each passage is worth more than 1 point. The directions for the last question indicate how many points you may receive. You will now begin the Reading section. There are three passages in the section. You should allow 20 minutes to read each passage and answer the questions about it. You should allow 60 minutes to complete the entire section.

READING

DIRECTIONS



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URBAN HEAT ISLAND An urban heat island (UHI) is a metropolitan area with much higher temperatures than its surroundings. As population centers grow in size from village to town to city, they tend to have a corresponding increase in average temperature, which is more often welcome in winter months than in summertime. In many cities, the air temperature is, on average, 0.5 to 0.8°C higher than the surrounding non-urban areas. In winter, the average temperature difference is even greater, between 1.1 and 1.6°C. Isotherms, which are lines linking areas with the same temperature on a map, usually appear in a circular pattern with the temperature diminishing towards suburban areas, resulting in contours resembling those of an island; therefore, the phenomenon is named an urban heat island, or UHI. The reason a city area is warmer than one in the country is due to the difference between the energy gains and losses of each region. Several factors affect the comparatively higher temperature of the urban areas. First of all, a city does not have much natural vegetation. Roads, parking lots, and buildings mostly occupy a city, leaving little room for vegetation to shade buildings, block solar radiation, and cool the air by evapotranspiration, the sum of evaporation and plant transpiration from the Earth's land surface to the atmosphere. In rural areas, the ground takes in solar energy during the day, and the heat evaporates moisture from plants and soil. Thus, while there is a net solar energy gain, this is compensated to some degree by evaporative cooling. This is because the concrete and asphalt are impermeable, so water runoff occurs rapidly after a rain, causing a drastic drop in the evaporative cooling rate. With little or no water to evaporate, therefore, solar energy gets absorbed by the surfaces, increasing their temperature. In addition, the city is so warm after the sun sets that it never cools down as much as the countryside around it, and so retains the heat island effect all night long. Urban areas are also affected by emissions of thermal energy associated with human activities. A human being emits roughly the same amount of heat as a 60 watt light bulb on average. Increases in the urban temperature are attributed to waste heat from such sources as home heating and air conditioning, power generation, industry, and transportation. For example, pavement and buildings trap heat during the summer, causing a city gets warmer, so that more energy is required to cool off the insides of buildings due to increased cooling demand, thereby creating additional heat output. As the ambient air temperatures increase in the city, the amount of ground-level ozone, or smog, also increases, raising public health and environmental issues. People suffering asthma or sensitive to heat are especially at risk. What is more, the canyon structure that tall buildings create enhances the warming. During the day, solar energy is trapped by multiple reflections off the buildings. This is known as the "canyon effect". Also, buildings have thermal properties of conducting heat to the air: tar, asphalt, brick, and concrete are better conductors of heat than the vegetation of the rural areas. Buildings also block the wind, which inhibits cooling by convection.



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However, the urban heat island effect also has some potential benefits. During the winter, the warming effect of an urban heat island may ease the cold weather in some cities. Warmer temperatures can reduce heating energy needs and may help melt ice and snow on roads. In general, however, the detrimental effects during the summertime outweigh the wintertime benefits, and most strategies for mitigating the urban heat island effect are designed to reduce the harmful summertime effects without eliminating wintertime benefits. Planting shade trees and installing reflective roofs and pavements are some of the long-term strategies for mitigating the urban heat island effect, and they help minimize the associated economic, environmental, health-related costs. In sunlight, dark colored roofs absorb heat, and the collected heat is conducted inside, increasing the demand for air conditioning. Installing highly reflective roofs deflects the sunlight and keeps the inside cooler, thereby cutting down on cool ing cost. Also, roads, parking lots, and driveways paved with dark materials like the asphalt absorb heat and exacerbate the urban heat island effect. Using reflective materials for these surfaces will increase their albedo and reduce heat absorption, thus decreasing the surrounding air temperature. Planting shade trees will reduce heat absorption by directly blocking the sunlight and shielding buildings. In addition, trees, shrubs, and other plants help reduce the ambient air temperature through evapotranspiration. When trees are planted and placed strategically in 10-15 years when they have grown to full size, they can cut down on the heating and cooling cost of a typical home or office by 10-20 percent on average. These trees offer additional benefits such as reductions in storm water runoff, erosion, and urban noise, just to name a few. Glossary albedo: the ratio of reflected/scattered power to incident power



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Paragraph 1 An urban heat island (UHI) is a metropolitan area with much higher temperatures than its surroundings. As population centers grow in size from village to town to city, they tend to have a corresponding increase in average temperature, which is more often welcome in winter months than in summertime. In many cities, the air temperature is, on average, 0.5 to 0.8°C higher than the surrounding non-urban areas. In winter, the average temperature difference is even greater, between 1.1 and 1.6°C. Isotherms, which are lines linking areas with the same temperature on a map, usually appear in a circular pattern with the temperature diminishing towards suburban areas, resulting in contours resembling those of an island; therefore, the phenomenon is named an urban heat island, or UHI. 1. Why does the author mention isotherms in paragraph 1?

(A) to give the definition of an urban heat island (B) to introduce the derivation of the term urban heat island (C) to show the temperature pattern of urban areas (D) to compare temperatures of urban areas with those of rural areas

2. The word those in paragraph 1 refers to

(A) isotherms (B) lines (C) suburban areas (D) contours



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Paragraph 2 The reason a city area is warmer than one in the country is due to the difference between the energy gains and losses of each region. Several factors affect the comparatively higher temperature of the urban areas. First of all, a city does not have much natural vegetation. Roads, parking lots, and buildings mostly occupy a city, leaving little room for vegetation to shade buildings, block solar radiation, and cool the air by evapotranspiration, the sum of evaporation and plant transpiration from the Earth's land surface to the atmosphere. In rural areas, the ground takes in solar energy during the day, and the heat evaporates moisture from plants and soil. Thus, while there is a net solar energy gain, this is compensated to some degree by evaporative cooling. This is because the concrete and asphalt are impermeable, so water runoff occurs rapidly after a rain, causing a drastic drop in the evaporative cooling rate. With little or no water to evaporate, therefore, solar energy gets absorbed by the surfaces, increasing their temperature. In addition, the city is so warm after the sun sets that it never cools down as much as the countryside around it, and so retains the heat island effect all night long. 3. The word impermeable in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) immaculate (B) impervious (C) impertinent (D) imminent

4. Which of the following can be inferred about the evaporative cooling rate mentioned in paragraph 2?

(A) The evaporative cooling rate is higher in cities than in rural areas. (B) The higher the level of solar energy, the lower the evaporative cooling

rate. (C) The evaporative cooling rate is determined by the materials an area's

surface is composed of. (D) The more the runoff of water, the higher the evaporative cooling rate.

5. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted statement in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change

the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

(A) Even after the sun sets, the city never cools down and also makes the countryside around it hot all through the night.

(B) Once the sun sets, the city starts to cool down at a rate as fast as that of the countryside.

(C) The urban area is too warm to cool down even after the sunset, maintaining the heat during the nighttime.

(D) The temperature in urban areas is higher than that in rural areas only after the sun sets.



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Paragraph 3 Urban areas are also affected by emissions of thermal energy associated with human activities. A human being emits roughly the same amount of heat as a 60 watt light bulb on average. Increases in the urban temperature are attributed to waste heat from such sources as home heating and air conditioning, power generation, industry, and transportation. For example, pavement and buildings trap heat during the summer, causing a city gets warmer, so that more energy is required to cool off the insides of buildings due to increased cooling demand, thereby creating additional heat output. As the ambient air temperatures increase in the city, the amount of ground-level ozone, or smog, also increases, raising public health and environmental issues. People suffering asthma or sensitive to heat are especially at risk. 6. Why does the author mention a 60 watt light bulb in paragraph 3?

(A) to explain human contributions to the temperature increase in urban areas

(B) to argue that human beings themselves are able to generate a great deal of heat

(C) to introduce an alternative energy source that is replacing the existing ones

(D) to show how energy consumption can be cut down by using a new energy source

7. The word attributed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) conveyed (B) taken (C) made (D) credited



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Paragraph 4 What is more, the canyon structure that tall buildings create enhances the warming. During the day, solar energy is trapped by multiple reflections off the buildings. This is known as the "canyon effect". Also, buildings have thermal properties of conducting heat to the air: tar, asphalt, brick, and concrete are better conductors of heat than the vegetation of the rural areas. Buildings also block the wind, which inhibits cooling by convection. 8. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that the canyon effect will NOT take place if

(A) buildings are sparsely situated (B) buildings are not allowed to have air conditioners installed in them (C) buildings are constructed near watercourses (D) buildings are not made of tar, asphalt, brick, and concrete

Paragraph 5 However, the urban heat island effect also has some potential benefits. During the winter, the warming effect of an urban heat island may ease the cold weather in some cities. Warmer temperatures can reduce heating energy needs and may help melt ice and snow on roads. In general, however, the detrimental effects during the summertime outweigh the wintertime benefits, and most strategies for mitigating the urban heat island effect are designed to reduce the harmful summertime effects without eliminating wintertime benefits. 9. The word mitigating in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) intensifying (B) assisting (C) causing (D) lessening



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Paragraph 6 Planting shade trees and installing reflective roofs and pavements are some of the long-term strategies for mitigating the urban heat island effect, and they help minimize the associated economic, environmental, health-related costs. In sunlight, dark colored roofs absorb heat, and the collected heat is conducted inside, increasing the demand for air conditioning. Installing highly reflective roofs deflects the sunlight and keeps the inside cooler, thereby cutting down on cool ing cost. Also, roads, parking lots, and driveways paved with dark materials like the asphalt absorb heat and exacerbate the urban heat island effect. Using reflective materials for these surfaces will increase their albedo and reduce heat absorption, thus decreasing the surrounding air temperature. Planting shade trees will reduce heat absorption by directly blocking the sunlight and shielding buildings. In addition, trees, shrubs, and other plants help reduce the ambient air temperature through evapotranspiration. When trees are planted and placed strategically in 10-15 years when they have grown to full size, they can cut down on the heating and cooling cost of a typical home or office by 10-20 percent on average. These trees offer additional benefits such as reductions in storm water runoff, erosion, and urban noise, just to name a few. 10. Which of the following can be inferred about dark colored buildings mentioned in paragraph 6?

(A) They raise albedo and increase heat absorption, thereby enhancing the urban heat island effect.

(B) They transfer most of the solar heat from the inside to the outside of the buildings, which increases the demand for cooling through air conditioning.

(C) They capture a great deal of solar heat without releasing the majority of the heat, contributing to a temperature rise in urban areas.

(D) They prevent solar heat from building up in the affected areas, thus decreasing the surrounding ambient temperature.

11. Which of the following are NOT mentioned as advantages of planting shade trees?

(A) the decrease in the amount of soil wearing away (B) the tranquil environment (C) the decrease in the occurrence of storms (D) the increase in water held in the soil



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Paragraph 2 The reason a city area is warmer than one in the country is due to the difference between the energy gains and losses of each region. Several factors affect the comparatively higher temperature of the urban areas. First of all, a city does not have much natural vegetation. Roads, parking lots, and buildings mostly occupy a city, leaving little room for vegetation to shade buildings, block solar radiation, and cool the air by evapotranspiration, the sum of evaporation and plant transpiration from the Earth's land surface to the atmosphere. A In rural areas, the ground takes in solar energy during the day, and the heat evaporates moisture from plants and soil. B Thus, while there is a net solar energy gain, this is compensated to some degree by evaporative cooling. C This is because the concrete and asphalt are impermeable, so water runoff occurs rapidly after a rain, causing a drastic drop in the evaporative cooling rate. D With little or no water to evaporate, therefore, solar energy gets absorbed by the surfaces, increasing their temperature. In addition, the city is so warm after the sun sets that it never cools down as much as the countryside around it, and so retains the heat island effect all night long. 12. Look at the four squares that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. In cities, where there is less vegetation, however, buildings, streets and sidewalks absorb the majority of solar energy input. Where would the sentence best fit? Click on a square to add the sentence to the passage.



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13. Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

Several factors affect increases in the temperature in urban areas. • • •

Answer Choices

(A) The lack of plant cover contributes to temperature increase in urban

areas. (B) Tar, asphalt, brick, and concrete are better conductors of heat than the

vegetation of rural areas. (C) Heat surplus can be used to evaporate water, thereby mitigating the

urban heat island effect. (D) Human activities generate emission of thermal energy, leading to the

temperature rise in the urban area. (E) The spatial organization that tall buildings create and construction

materials used to make them contribute to the temperature increase in urban areas.

(F) In the wintertime, some cities in cold climates may benefit from the warming effect of an urban heat island.

Drag your answer choices to the spaces where they belong. To remove an answer choice, click on it. To review the passage, click on View Text.



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PLACEBO EFFECT When there is a measurable, observable, or perceivable improvement in health not attributable to an actual treatment, it is called the placebo effect. Many people believe that the effect derives from the placebo itself in a mysterious manner. The word placebo is Latin for "I shall please" and is used to refer to a substance or

treatment that a doctor gives to a patient instead of a drug, which is believed by the doctor to be inert or innocuous. Placebos include sugar or starch pills as well as "fake" surgery and "fake" psychotherapy. Due to a seeming conviction about the treatment or a subjective feeling of improvement, some consider the placebo effect to be psychological. A psychologist at the University of Connecticut, Irving Kirsch, is convinced that the effectiveness of Prozac and related drugs may be attributable mainly to the placebo effect. After analyzing 19 clinical trials of antidepressants, he concluded that the expectation of improvement – not adjustments in brain chemistry - accounted for 75 percent of the drugs' efficacy. Kirsch stated that, "The critical factor is our beliefs about what is going to happen to us. You don't have to rely on drugs to see a profound transformation." The combination of a person's beliefs and hopes about a treatment along with their suggestibility may produce a profound biochemical effect. Sensory experience and thoughts can affect neurochemistry. The neurochemical system of the body affects and in turn is affected by other biochemical systems, including the hormonal and immune systems. This corresponds with current knowledge that a person's optimistic attitude and beliefs may be critical to his or her physical well-being and recovery from injury or illness. The psychological explanation seems to be the one most commonly believed. This may explain why many individuals are dismayed when they discover that the efficacious drug they are taking is merely a placebo. This leads them to think that their problem is "all in their minds" and that there is really nothing wrong with them. Yet, there are too many studies which have found objective improvements in health from placebos to support the notion that the placebo effect is entirely psychological. There are some people who attribute part of the placebo effect to the natural course that an illness or injury takes, which is called the nature-taking-its-course theory. Spontaneous healing frequently occurs even though no action is taken to treat an illness or injury. Additionally, many disorders, pains, and infirmities wax and wane. In many cases, what is interpreted as the placebo effect could be natural regression. However, spontaneous healing and remission of disease cannot serve as an explanation for all cases of the healing or improvement which occurs because of placebos. People for whom treatment is withheld often do not fare as well as those given placebos or actual medicine and treatment. Another theory gaining momentum postulates that a patient's involvement in an encouraging and optimistic process involving attention, care, affection, and so forth may itself trigger physical reactions in the body which promote healing. According to this theory, it is the process of administering a placebo that produces



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the effect. Following this line of thought, the touching, caring, attention, and other interpersonal communication which is part of the controlled study process, along with the hopefulness and encouragement provided by the experimenter/healer, are what affects the mood of the subject, which in turn causes physiological changes such as the release of endorphins. With the provision of hope, the process diminishes stress and reduces uncertainty about treatment choices or the nature of its outcome. The reduction in stress levels prevents or slows down further detrimental physiological changes. The process-of-treatment hypothesis, as it is known, would explain how inert homeopathic remedies and questionable alternative therapies are often effective or thought to be effective. However, whether the placebo effect is primarily psychological, misconstrued spontaneous healing, due to showing concern and attention, or due to some combination of all three may not be determined conclusively. The power of the placebo effect has led to an ethical dilemma. One should not deceive other people, but doctors should relieve the pain and suffering of their patients. Should doctors use deception to benefit patients? Is it unethical for doctors to intentionally prescribe placebos without notifying their patients? If notifying the patients may reduce the effectiveness of the placebo, is some sort of deception warranted when the objective is to benefit the patients? In cases where there has been strong evidence of the placebo effect and where distress is an aggravating factor, some doctors assert that it is justifiable to use a placebo. Still others consider it wrong to deceive patients, without exception, and believe that consent should be given to ensure that the patients are aware that the treatment is a placebo treatment. And yet others, especially alternative medicine practitioners, do not even want to know whether a treatment is a placebo or not. Their attitude is that so long as the treatment proves efficacious, it does not matter if it is a placebo. Of course, if the placebo effect is a mere illusion, then another ethical quandary arises: should placebos be administered if it is known that deception does not really diminish pain or aid in the cure of anything?



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Paragraph 1 When there is a measurable, observable, or perceivable improvement in health not attributable to an actual treatment, it is called the placebo effect. Many people believe that the effect derives from the placebo itself in a mysterious manner. The word placebo is Latin for "I shall please" and is used to refer to a substance or

treatment that a doctor gives to a patient instead of a drug, which is believed by the doctor to be inert or innocuous. Placebos include sugar or starch pills as well as "fake" surgery and "fake" psychotherapy. 14. The word inert in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) detrimental (B) illogical (C) conjectural (D) inactive

Paragraph 2 Due to a seeming conviction about the treatment or a subjective feeling of improvement, some consider the placebo effect to be psychological. A psychologist at the University of Connecticut, Irving Kirsch, is convinced that the effectiveness of Prozac and related drugs may be attributable mainly to the placebo effect. After analyzing 19 clinical trials of antidepressants, he concluded that the expectation of improvement – not adjustments in brain chemistry - accounted for 75 percent of the drugs' efficacy. Kirsch stated that, "The critical factor is our beliefs about what is going to happen to us. You don't have to rely on drugs to see a profound transformation." 15. Why does the author mention 19 clinical trials of antidepressants in paragraph 2?

(A) to explain how reliant the patients are on placebos (B) to refute the efficacy of placebos (C) to argue that the placebo effect is related to what patients believe (D) to show how critical placebos are in the medicinal development

16. The phrase accounted for in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) comprised (B) assigned (C) procured (D) altered



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Paragraph 4 The psychological explanation seems to be the one most commonly believed. This may explain why many individuals are dismayed when they discover that the efficacious drug they are taking is merely a placebo. This leads them to think that their problem is "all in their minds" and that there is really nothing wrong with them. Yet, there are too many studies which have found objective improvements in health from placebos to support the notion that the placebo effect is entirely psychological. 17. The word merely in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) no less than (B) no more than (C) not less than (D) not more than

Paragraph 5 There are some people who attribute part of the placebo effect to the natural course that an illness or injury takes, which is called the nature-taking-its-course theory. Spontaneous healing frequently occurs even though no action is taken to treat an illness or injury. Additionally, many disorders, pains, and infirmities wax and wane. In many cases, what is interpreted as the placebo effect could be natural regression. However, spontaneous healing and remission of disease cannot serve as an explanation for all cases of the healing or improvement which occurs because of placebos. People for whom treatment is withheld often do not fare as well as those given placebos or actual medicine and treatment. 18. According to paragraph 5, based on what reason can the nature-taking-its-course theory be challenged?

(A) People are more responsive to placebos than to drugs. (B) People given placebos have a higher chance to recover from illnesses

than those given no treatment. (C) People are naturally healed whether or not they are given any sort of

treatment. (D) People usually do not believe in the healing power of nature.

19. The word those in paragraph 5 refers to

(A) placebos (B) treatments (C) people (D) medicines



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Paragraph 6 Another theory gaining momentum postulates that a patient's involvement in an encouraging and optimistic process involving attention, care, affection, and so forth may itself trigger physical reactions in the body which promote healing. According to this theory, it is the process of administering a placebo that produces the effect. Following this line of thought, the touching, caring, attention, and other interpersonal communication which is part of the controlled study process, along with the hopefulness and encouragement provided by the experimenter/healer, are what affects the mood of the subject, which in turn causes physiological changes such as the release of endorphins. With the provision of hope, the process diminishes stress and reduces uncertainty about treatment choices or the nature of its outcome. The reduction in stress levels prevents or slows down further detrimental physiological changes. The process-of-treatment hypothesis, as it is known, would explain how inert homeopathic remedies and questionable alternative therapies are often effective or thought to be effective. However, whether the placebo effect is primarily psychological, misconstrued spontaneous healing, due to showing concern and attention, or due to some combination of all three may not be determined conclusively. 20. According to the process-of-treatment theory mentioned in paragraph 6, the primary factor that makes a placebo work is believed to be

(A) decrease in stress (B) attitudes of physicians (C) improvement of technology (D) reduction of endorphin level

21. The word detrimental in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) desirable (B) harmful (C) meaningless (D) irrevocable

22. Why does the author mention homeopathic remedies in paragraph 6?

(A) to introduce a therapy that is better than that using a placebo (B) to prove that the process-of-treatment theory is wrong (C) to show one of the most widely used therapies not using a placebo (D) to give an example of treatments whose efficacy can be explained by the

process-of-treatment hypothesis



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Paragraph 7 The power of the placebo effect has led to an ethical dilemma. One should not deceive other people, but doctors should relieve the pain and suffering of their patients. Should doctors use deception to benefit patients? Is it unethical for doctors to intentionally prescribe placebos without notifying their patients? If notifying the patients may reduce the effectiveness of the placebo, is some sort of deception warranted when the objective is to benefit the patients? In cases where there has been strong evidence of the placebo effect and where distress is an aggravating factor, some doctors assert that it is justifiable to use a placebo. Still others consider it wrong to deceive patients, without exception, and believe that consent should be given to ensure that the patients are aware that the treatment is a placebo treatment. And yet others, especially alternative medicine practitioners, do not even want to know whether a treatment is a placebo or not. Their attitude is that so long as the treatment proves efficacious, it does not matter if it is a placebo. Of course, if the placebo effect is a mere illusion, then another ethical quandary arises: should placebos be administered if it is known that deception does not really diminish pain or aid in the cure of anything? 23. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted statement in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

(A) Some doctors have asserted that it is never justified to use a placebo especially when distress aggravates the state of patients with no sign of recovery.

(B) As factors that aggravate the symptoms of patients can be eliminated only by using a placebo, some physicians advocate the use of placebos no matter how much effect it has.

(C) Prescribing placebos without informing patients can be excused when stress makes their symptoms worse and placebos certainly work well in their treatment.

(D) Using a placebo without notifying patients can be justified in case patients have not shown any sign of improvement and their symptoms have been aggravating.

24. The word others in paragraph 7 refers to

(A) patients (B) doctors (C) placebos (D) factors



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Paragraph 5 There are some people who attribute part of the placebo effect to the natural course that an illness or injury takes, which is called the nature-taking-its-course theory. A Spontaneous healing frequently occurs even though no action is taken to treat an illness or injury. Additionally, many disorders, pains, and infirmities wax and wane. B In many cases, what is interpreted as the placebo effect could be natural regression. C However, spontaneous healing and remission of disease cannot serve as an explanation for all cases of the healing or improvement which occurs because of placebos. D People for whom treatment is withheld often do not fare as well as those given placebos or actual medicine and treatment. 25. Look at the four squares that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. In other words, the placebo may be given credit with what is actually caused by nature. Where would the sentence best fit? Click on a square to add the sentence to the passage.



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26. Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

Diverse theories have been developed to try to explain the placebo effect. • • •

Answer Choices

(A) Placebos may be not only sugar pills or starch pills but also "fake"

surgery and "fake" psychotherapy. (B) A person's beliefs and expectations may bring about physical well-being

and thus recovery from injuries or illnesses. (C) Making patients comfortable with treatment can generate healing effects. (D) Since the placebo effect is a mere illusion, an ethical dilemma emerges;

therefore, administering placebos should not be permitted. (E) Although there is a belief that patients recover from illnesses naturally,

not because of placebos, many questions still remain unanswered. (F) The placebo effect is related not with biochemistry but with the beliefs

and attitudes of patients. Drag your answer choices to the spaces where they belong. To remove an answer choice, click on it. To review the passage, click on View Text.



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BIRD MIGRATION Migration is the movement of an organism from one region to another that takes place every day, season, or year in a cycle. Although many various sorts of animals migrate, such as whales, caribou, monarch butterflies, and salmon, migration in birds is probably one of the most astonishing feats in the animal kingdom. Usually, birds migrate to a region which provides a better climate for feeding or especially for rearing their young. A corresponding return movement can be witnessed at the end of the breeding season. How do birds figure out where to go once they start their journey? There are several theories about how migrating birds find their way. The most widely-accepted theories identify five means by which birds navigate: visual orientation, geomagnetism, photoperiodism, sun pass, and celestial navigation. Visual orientation, a method used by many birds, means they utilize such geographic landmarks as rivers, coastlines, and mountain ranges for diurnal migration. This is especially significant since it enables the birds to find the best region for breeding or wintering. Over the course of their journey, the birds learn the landmarks and utilize these to guide them when the sun or stars are obscured. Among the most important features are coastal headlands, river valleys and ranges of hills. When their migration reaches its peak, birds can be seen converging on these landmarks, especially in inclement weather. Geomagnetism, the utilization of the earth's magnetic field for orientation, is another method used in migration. The magnetic compass is usually considered a basic avian compass, used especially for long-distance migratory birds which orient themselves to the earth's magnetic field. How this compass operates is still not well understood; geomagnetism is probably the most controversial and least understood of the major possible navigational cues. In the early studies of Merkel and Wiltschoko (1964), birds were put in a large cement cage without any environmental clues, but the birds oriented properly. However, placed in a large steel cage, they oriented randomly since the steel interfered with the magnetic lines of force around the cage. Migration in birds is such an astounding feat because somehow birds are able to time their departure in order to reach another at the precise moment when a resource becomes abundant there. How do they know exactly when to leave? One cue they use is photoperiodism, the lengthening and shortening of days in the spring and fall. The changes in the length of daylight affect special glands in birds, called the pineal and pituitary glands. When the days become shortened in temperate regions, these glands produce hormones that make the birds restless and want to migrate. This is called migratory restlessness. The position of the sun seems to be one of the main navigational cues for both diurnal and nocturnal migrants. In the 1950s, Kramer put starlings in cages with opaque walls and glass tops. He found that on sunny days, they oriented in the right direction, but on cloudy days, they oriented randomly. Even nocturnal birds seem to take their cue from the sun as cloudy days either result in no migration at night or an unusual variation of direction. The sun moves across the sky during the day, giving orientation signals that vary with the time of the day. Birds, like



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many animals, have internal clocks that help them to understand these signals. For instance, they seem to be aware that in the late afternoon, the sun moves more to the west than it is at midday or in the morning. Local time may change in a longitudinal journey on the east-west axis, and the length of the day may change in a latitudinal movement on the north-south axis. Since stars are consistently fixed, they become an absolute point of reference. Obviously, only the nocturnal migrants can benefit from cues provided by the stars. Sauer, a German ornithologist, conducted a classic experiment in the 1950s. He placed warblers into cages in a planetarium in the fall. The experiment was conducted in a planetarium, not under the normal night sky, making the alteration of the sky possible and changes in the birds' responses easily measurable. The birds oriented in a certain direction, and Sauer moved the night sky in that direction about 300 km, the distance the birds would normally move in a night. He repeated this in the next night - move the sky in the direction the birds were oriented. At the end of a couple of weeks, the birds stopped being restless since they had migrated to the night sky visible from central Africa, where they would have flown to had they actually made the journey. Not only that, they migrated around the Mediterranean Sea en route. And that, navigating only by the stars. Glossary pineal gland: a small endocrine gland in the brain pituitary gland: an endocrine gland about the size of a pea that sits in a small, bony cavity covered by a dural fold at the base of the brain planetarium: a building where lights are shone on the ceiling to represent the planets and the stars and to show how they appear to move



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Paragraph 1 Migration is the movement of an organism from one region to another that takes place every day, season, or year in a cycle. Although many various sorts of animals migrate, such as whales, caribou, monarch butterflies, and salmon, migration in birds is probably one of the most astonishing feats in the animal kingdom. Usually, birds migrate to a region which provides a better climate for feeding or especially for rearing their young. A corresponding return movement can be witnessed at the end of the breeding season. How do birds figure out where to go once they start their journey? There are several theories about how migrating birds find their way. The most widely-accepted theories identify five means by which birds navigate: visual orientation, geomagnetism, photoperiodism, sun pass, and celestial navigation. 27. According to paragraph 1, birds generally migrate when

(A) the local environment no longer provides enough food (B) they are being threatened by predators (C) they have to find mates for reproduction (D) they lose the competition with their predators

28. The word rearing in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) taking up (B) bringing up (C) engaging in (D) giving off



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Paragraph 2 Visual orientation, a method used by many birds, means they utilize such geographic landmarks as rivers, coastlines, and mountain ranges for diurnal migration. This is especially significant since it enables the birds to find the best region for breeding or wintering. Over the course of their journey, the birds learn the landmarks and utilize these to guide them when the sun or stars are obscured. Among the most important features are coastal headlands, river valleys and ranges of hills. When their migration reaches its peak, birds can be seen converging on these landmarks, especially in inclement weather. 29. According to paragraph 2, orientation based on landmarks is particularly useful when

(A) birds attain sexual maturity (B) weather condition are not good (C) the sun reaches its peak (D) birds fly over mountainous regions

30. The word obscured in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) lit (B) risen (C) screened (D) diminished

Paragraph 3 Geomagnetism, the utilization of the earth's magnetic field for orientation, is another method used in migration. The magnetic compass is usually considered a basic avian compass, used especially for long-distance migratory birds which orient themselves to the earth's magnetic field. How this compass operates is still not well understood; geomagnetism is probably the most controversial and least understood of the major possible navigational cues. In the early studies of Merkel and Wiltschoko (1964), birds were put in a large cement cage without any environmental clues, but the birds oriented properly. However, placed in a large steel cage, they oriented randomly since the steel interfered with the magnetic lines of force around the cage. 31. According to paragraph 3, why did birds in a large steel cage fail to orient in the right direction?

(A) because there were no environmental clues in the cage (B) because the birds became confused and did not know where they were (C) because the birds probably did not understand the major navigational

cues (D) because steel hampered the work of the magnetic lines of force around

the cage



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Paragraph 4 Migration in birds is such an astounding feat because somehow birds are able to time their departure in order to reach another at the precise moment when a resource becomes abundant there. How do they know exactly when to leave? One cue they use is photoperiodism, the lengthening and shortening of days in the spring and fall. The changes in the length of daylight affect special glands in birds, called the pineal and pituitary glands. When the days become shortened in temperate regions, these glands produce hormones that make the birds restless and want to migrate. This is called migratory restlessness. 32. Why is migration in birds considered an amazing accomplishment?

(A) because birds are good at finding proper locations to live (B) because birds are well adapted to new habitats which change seasonally

and annually (C) because birds are able to know the exact time to move (D) because birds are able to migrate under any circumstances

33. According to photoperiodism mentioned in paragraph 4, which of the following makes birds migrate?

(A) a change in the constituents of hormones in the birds (B) a change in the amount of food the birds need (C) a change in the population size of the birds (D) a change in the length of time during which the sun stays in the sky

34. According to paragraph 4, what is migratory restlessness?

(A) the period during which the pineal and pituitary glands stop secreting hormones

(B) the undesirable state of birds in which they are less likely to move (C) the birds' unstable state which stimulates them to move (D) the normal condition of birds at the end of their migration



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Paragraph 5 The position of the sun seems to be one of the main navigational cues for both diurnal and nocturnal migrants. In the 1950s, Kramer put starlings in cages with opaque walls and glass tops. He found that on sunny days, they oriented in the right direction, but on cloudy days, they oriented randomly. Even nocturnal birds seem to take their cue from the sun as cloudy days either result in no migration at night or an unusual variation of direction. The sun moves across the sky during the day, giving orientation signals that vary with the time of the day. Birds, like many animals, have internal clocks that help them to understand these signals. For instance, they seem to be aware that in the late afternoon, the sun moves more to the west than it is at midday or in the morning. Local time may change in a longitudinal journey on the east-west axis, and the length of the day may change in a latitudinal movement on the north-south axis. 35. According to paragraph 5, which of the following evidence supports the idea that the sun's movement affects not only diurnal but also nocturnal birds?

(A) Nocturnal birds cannot move longitudinally at night on cloudy days. (B) Nocturnal birds do not migrate even at night on cloudy days. (C) Nocturnal birds show standardized patterns of orientation at night on

cloudy days. (D) The internal clocks of nocturnal birds become activated at night on

cloudy days. 36. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted statement in the passage? Incorrect answer choices

change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

(A) Local time changes in a latitudinal journey, while the length of the day changes in a longitudinal one.

(B) Compared to a latitudinal migration, a longitudinal migration is affected more by the length of the day, resulting in more change in local time.

(C) The east-west axis may change local time and the length of the day during longitudinal and latitudinal journeys.

(D) Depending on whether birds move horizontally or vertically, regional time or the day length may vary, respectively.



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Paragraph 6 Since stars are consistently fixed, they become an absolute point of reference. Obviously, only the nocturnal migrants can benefit from cues provided by the stars. Sauer, a German ornithologist, conducted a classic experiment in the 1950s. He placed warblers into cages in a planetarium in the fall. The experiment was conducted in a planetarium, not under the normal night sky, making the alteration of the sky possible and changes in the birds' responses easily measurable. The birds oriented in a certain direction, and Sauer moved the night sky in that direction about 300 km, the distance the birds would normally move in a night. He repeated this in the next night - move the sky in the direction the birds were oriented. At the end of a couple of weeks, the birds stopped being restless since they had migrated to the night sky visible from central Africa, where they would have flown to had they actually made the journey. Not only that, they migrated around the Mediterranean Sea en route. And that, navigating only by the stars. 37. Birds were put in a planetarium in an experiment mentioned in paragraph 6 because

(A) it was important to keep conditions consistent for the experiment (B) weather conditions were too poor to conduct the experiment (C) it was convenient to change the condition of the sky and to observe the

reactions of the birds (D) birds were likely to be restless there, which was a necessary condition

for the experiment 38. The author mentions central Africa in paragraph 6 in order to

(A) explain why birds usually migrate there rather than Mediterranean Sea (B) give an example of one of the favored destinations of birds (C) show that birds raised under artificial circumstances are better able to

migrate to their destination (D) support the idea that stars play a pivotal role in bird migration



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Paragraph 5 The position of the sun seems to be one of the main navigational cues for both diurnal and nocturnal migrants. In the 1950s, Kramer put starlings in cages with opaque walls and glass tops. He found that on sunny days, they oriented in the right direction, but on cloudy days, they oriented randomly. Even nocturnal birds seem to take their cue from the sun as cloudy days either result in no migration at night or an unusual variation of direction. A The sun moves across the sky during the day, giving orientation signals that vary with the time of the day. Birds, like many animals, have internal clocks that help them to understand these signals. B For instance, they seem to be aware that in the late afternoon, the sun moves more to the west than it is at midday or in the morning. C Local time may change in a longitudinal journey on the east-west axis, and the length of the day may change in a latitudinal movement on the north-south axis. D 39. Look at the four squares that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. Knowing the time, however, becomes complicated during the course of migration. Where would the sentence best fit? Click on a square to add the sentence to the passage.



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40. Directions: Select the appropriate phrases from the answer choices and match them to the type of migrating cues to which they relate. TWO of the answer choices will NOT be used. This question is worth 4 points. Visual orientation • Geomagnetism • Photoperiodism • • Sun pass • • Celestial navigation •

Answer Choices

(A) It is used for guidance when the sky is cloudy. (B) It holds that the sun moves across the sky, giving consistent orientation

signals which are same at any time of the day. (C) It is related to instinctive clocks that many animals have. (D) It is especially helpful for birds migrating long distances. (E) It is closely related to the amount of daylight hours. (F) It is the least debatable and most known of the major possible

navigational cues. (G) It is a prime cue for both diurnal and nocturnal fliers. (H) It is clearly significant only to nocturnal migrants. (I) It involves special glands in birds.

Drag your answer choices to the spaces where they belong. To remove an answer choice, click on it. To review the passage, click on View Text.



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NOW GO ON TO THE LISTENING TEST!



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Play Audio Track 01-01

This section measures your ability to understand conversations and lectures in English. The Listening section is divided into separately timed parts. In each part, you will listen to 1 conversation and 2 lectures. You will hear each conversation or lecture only one time. After each conversation or lecture, you will answer some questions about it. The questions typically ask about the main idea and supporting details. Some questions ask about a speaker’s purpose or attitude. Answer the questions based on what is stated or implied by the speakers. You may take notes while you listen. You may use your notes to help you answer the questions. Your notes will not be scored. If you need to change the volume while you listen, click on the Volume icon at the top of the screen.

In some questions, you will see this icon: This means that you will hear, but not see, part of the question. Some of the questions have special directions. These directions appear in a gray box on the screen. Most questions are worth 1 point. If a question is worth more than 1 point, it will have special directions that indicate how many points you can receive. A clock at the top of the screen will show you how much time is remaining. The clock will not count down while you are listening. The clock will count down only while you are answering the questions.

LISTENING

DIRECTIONS



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LISTENING DIRECTIONS

Play Audio Track 01-02 In this part, you will listen to 2 conversation and 4 lectures. You must answer each question. After you answer, click on Next. Then click on OK to confirm your answer and go on to the next question. After you click on OK, you cannot return to previous questions. You may now begin this part of the Listening Section. You will have 60 minutes to answer the questions. Click on Continue to go on.



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Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a bookstore manager.


CONVERSATION



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1. What are the speakers mainly discussing?

(A) A class that the student is taking

(B) A book the student needs to purchase

(C) An item that the student wants to return

(D) A price that the student thinks is too high

2. Why does the bookstore manager explain one of her store’s policies to the student?

(A) To inform the student that he can get his money back

(B) To tell the student that he has arrived too late

(C) To let the student know that the deadline has passed

(D) To ask the student why he took the plastic wrapping off the book

3. According to the student, why is he dropping the class?

(A) He finds the material in the class to be too difficult.

(B) He received a low grade on the midterm exam.

(C) He has decided not to major in philosophy.

(D) The professor is expecting too much work in it.

4. What will the student probably do next?

(A) Ask the bookstore manager another question

(B) Receive his money from the bookstore manager

(C) Sign a form to drop his philosophy class

(D) Search for another book to purchase

Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question.

5. What does the bookstore manager imply when she says this:

(A) The price of the student’s philosophy book is reasonable.

(B) She agrees with the student that book prices are too high.

(C) It is easy to get in contact with the book’s publisher.

(D) She does not determine the prices of any books.



35

Listen to part of a lecture in a biology class.


BIOLOGY



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6. What is the lecture mainly about?

(A) The life of Normari Borlaug

(B) Genetically modified foods

(C) Changes that have been made to wheat

(D) The advantages of modifying some crops

7. According to the professor, why do people try to modify wheat? Click on 2 answers.

(A) To have it use less water

(B) To let it resist certain diseases

(C) To enable it to grow more quickly

(D) To make it more productive

8. What is the professor’s opinion of Norman Borlaug?

(A) The work that he did was of great importance.

(B) He should not have genetically modified some plants.

(C) His work came at the end of the Green Revolution.

(D) It is possible that people overstate his influence.

9. Why does the professor mention dwarf wheat?

(A) To emphasize that it is a highly productive form of wheat

(B) To state that it is mainly grown by farmers in Japan

(C) To describe how it is able to resist many harmful diseases

(D) To note how it was crossbred with another type of wheat

10. What can be inferred about the Green Revolution?

(A) It occurred thanks to improvements in farm machinery.

(B) It would not have happened without Norman Borlaug.

(C) Many people have protested the way that it started.

(D) It only took place in Mexico and India.

11. What will the professor probably do next?

(A) Give the students a short reading assignment

(B) Discuss some modifications to another crop

(C) Talk about some changes made to barley

(D) Continue his discussion on Norman Borlaug



37

Listen to part of a lecture in an architecture class.


ARCHITECTURE



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12. In the lecture, the professor describes a number of facts about Roman aqueducts. Indicate whether each of the following is a fact or not. Click in the correct box for each statement.

Fact Not a Fact

(A) Some of them could carry water uphill.

(B) They took water to large population centers.

(C) Many of them were found underground.

(D) They were made from a variety of materials.

13. What can be inferred about the water system in Rome?

(A) It was only connected to a few private homes.

(B) It suffered many breakdowns over the years.

(C) It was the most expensive public works project in the city.

(D) It required thousands of laborers to maintain.

14. Why does the professor discuss the aqueduct system in Rome?

(A) To point out its disadvantages

(B) To emphasize how large it was

(C) To show how it was easily destroyed

(D) To talk about its enormous costs

15. According to the professor, what happened to Rome’s aqueduct system when Germanic tribes invaded?

(A) It continued to work as expected.

(B) It suffered a great amount of damage.

(C) It was rebuilt by the invaders.

(D) It was taken apart in its entirety.

Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question.

16. Why does the professor say this:

(A) He feels that aqueducts are impressive structures.

(B) He is not eager to provide an explanation.

(C) The students should have done their reading on time.

(D) Some students may not know what aqueducts are.


17. What does the professor imply when he says this:

(A) Aqueducts were seldom used after Roman times.

(B) Humans are easily susceptible to some diseases.

(C) Human civilization reached a high point in the Roman Empire.

(D) The Romans built aqueducts all throughout Europe.



39

Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a professor.


CONVERSATION



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18. Why does the student visit the professor?

(A) To discuss a film that the class watched

(B) To tell her about a problem with his schedule

(C) To ask to take an exam at a later time

(D) To find out if he can enroll in her class

19. According to the professor, what is the topic of the movie?

(A) French culture

(B) Chemistry

(C) European history

(D) Engineering

20. Why does the student tell the professor about his internship?

(A) To prove that he did not skip class on purpose

(B) To claim that he is too busy to attend her class

(C) To give a reason for his declining grade

(D) To explain why he has a scheduling conflict

21. What will the professor lend the student?

(A) A textbook

(B) A video

(C) An essay

(D) A poster

22. What can be inferred about the professor?

(A) She enjoys having the student in her class.

(B) She has taught the student in a previous class.

(C) She trusts the student to keep his word.

(D) She often has students meet in her office.



41

Listen to part of a lecture in a biology class.


BIOLOGY



42

23. What is the lecture mainly about?

(A) How animals take care of and protect their offspring

(B) Child-rearing behavior in reptiles and mammals

(C) Animals’ instincts to protect themselves from danger

(D) The need for all animals to engage in reproduction

24. According to the professor, what is a uniparental species?

(A) One in which both parents look after their offspring

(B) One in which no parents look after their offspring

(C) One in which only the mother looks after her offspring

(D) One in which only the father looks after his offspring

25. Why does the professor mention that mother deer clean their fawns after giving birth?

(A) To prove that deer possess motherly instincts

(B) To show how they protect their fawns from predators

(C) To mention that fawns need parental assistance for a year

(D) To state why many fawns survive their early years

26. What comparison does the professor make between penguins and alligators?

(A) The animals’ methods of protecting their offspring

(B) The manners in which they feed their babies

(C) The ways in which they watch their eggs before they hatch

(D) Their styles of fighting predators that attack their young

27. What does the professor imply about baboons?

(A) They make sounds when predators attack them.

(B) They may fight animals that attack their young.

(C) They travel iri herds that let them guard their babies.

(D) They engage in uniparental behavior.


28. What does the professor mean when she says this:

(A) The students should pay close attention to the video.

(B) She wants someone to turn off the lights.

(C) The video she will show will be entertaining.

(D) The room is not yet dark enough.



43

Listen to part of a lecture in an urban development class.


URBAN DEVELOPMENT



44

29. What is the main topic of the lecture?

(A) The advantages of building cities near water

(B) Factors involved in modern urban planning

(C) The differences between cities and suburbs

(D) How pollution and transportation affect cities

30. In the lecture, the professor describes a number of facts about the geographical locations of cities. Indicate whether each of the following is a fact or not. Click in the correct box for each statement.

Fact Not a Fact

(A) Many cities are built in the mountains.

(B) Cities are no longer built in areas that get earthquakes.

(C) A large number of cities are founded near sources of water.

(D) Soil is one factor that must be considered when building a city.

31. What does the professor imply about airports?

(A) They can be expensive construction projects for most cities.

(B) They are more popular than port facilities for most modern-day cities.

(C) They must be connected to highways and railways to be efficient.

(D) They are not currently built inside the city limits of large urban centers.

32. How does the professor organize the lecture?

(A) By focusing on the advantages of building cities

(B) By discussing various factors one by one

(C) By engaging the students in discussion

(D) By asking questions arid then answering them

33. According to the professor, how are most suburbs built nowadays?

(A) With approval from the nearby cities

(B) With little planning

(C) With virtually no forethought

(D) With great attention to detail


34. What does the professor imply when she says this:

(A) Urban heat island is of relatively little importance.

(B) There are few people who know about urban heat island.

(C) She will discuss urban heat island in that day’s lecture.

(D) There is a connection between urban heat island and pollution.



45

NOW TAKE A 10-MINUTE BREAK!



46

NOW GO ON TO THE SPEAKING TEST!



47

The following Speaking section of the test will last approximately 20 minutes. To complete it, you will need a recording device that you can play back to listen to your responses. During the test, you will answer six speaking questions. Two of the questions ask about familiar topics. Four questions ask about short conversations, lectures, and reading passages. You may take notes as you listen to the conversations and lectures. The questions and the reading passages are printed here. The time you will have to prepare your response and to speak is printed below each question. You should answer all of the questions as completely as possible in the time allowed. The preparation time begins immediately after you hear the question. You will be told when to begin to prepare and when to begin speaking.

SPEAKING

DIRECTIONS



48

TASK 1. You will now be asked a question about a familiar topic. After you hear the question, you will have 15 seconds to prepare your response and 45 seconds to speak. Now play Track 01-1Q to hear Question 1

Which characteristic do you admire the most in other people: creativity, intelligence, or courage? Give specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

Preparation Time: 15 Seconds Response Time: 45 Seconds

TASK 2. You will now be asked to give your opinion about a familiar topic. After you hear the question, you will have 15 seconds to prepare your response and 45 seconds to speak. Now play Track 01-2Q to hear Question 2

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: A person should carry his or her cell phone at all times? Give specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.




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TASK 3. You will now read a short passage and then listen to a conversation on the same topic. You will then be asked a question about them. After you hear the question, you will have 30 seconds to prepare your response and 60 seconds to speak.

Reading Time: 50 Seconds

To the Editor, I believe the recent ban on speaking on cell phones in the library is wrong. First, most students who talk on their phones in the library whisper into them. They talk no louder than students who chat with each other in the reading room. Second is that if students cannot use their phones, then they will not be able to answer them in case of an emergency. What if a student gets an emergency phone call from his or her parents but cannot answer while he or she is in the library? This new policy seems wrong to me. Gina Stuart Freshman

Now listen to two students as they discuss the letter. 01-3LIS



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Now play Track 01-3Q to hear Question 3

The woman expresses her opinion of the student’s letter to the editor. State her opinion and explain the reasons she gives for holding that opinion.




51

TASK 4. You will now read a short passage and then listen to a talk on the same academic topic. You will then be asked a question about them. After you hear the question, you will have 30 seconds to prepare your response and 60 seconds to speak.

Reading Time: 45 Seconds

Negative Ideation

Some people have bad habits. These include smoking, eating junk food, drinking too much alcohol, or failing to exercise. In many cases, people do riot wish to succumb to these temptations, yet they fail. One method people frequently utilize to break their bad habits is to employ negative ideation. By doing this, a person’s brain associates the object of his or her desire with something that is either unpleasant or disgusting. When this happens, the person eventually comes to regard whatever he or she once wanted as something that is distasteful and undesired.

Now listen to part of a talk on this topic in a psychology class. 01-4LIS



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The professor talks about how people try to break their bad habits. Explain how these examples are related to negative ideation.




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TASK 5. You will now listen to a conversation. You will then be asked a question about it. After you hear the question, you will have 20 seconds to prepare your response and 60 seconds to speak. Now listen to a conversation between two students. 01-5LIS


The students discuss two possible solutions to the woman’s problem. Describe the problem. Then state which of the two solutions you prefer and explain why.




54

TASK 6. You will now listen to part of a lecture. You will then be asked a question about it. After you hear the question, you will have 20 seconds to prepare your response and 60 seconds to speak. Now listen to part of a talk in a business class. 01-6LIS


Using points and examples from the talk, explain two different ways that the design of a product is important to customers.




55

This section measures your ability to use writing to communicate in an academic environment. There will be two writing tasks. For the first writing task, you will read a passage and listen to a lecture and then answer a question based on what you have read and heard. For the second task, you will answer a question based on your own knowledge and experience.

WRITING

DIRECTIONS



56

TASK 1: Writing Based on Reading and Listening

For this task, you will read a passage about an academic topic and you will listen to a lecture about the same topic. You may take notes while you read and listen. Then you will write a response to a question that asks you about the relationship between the lecture you heard and the reading passage. Try to answer the question as completely as possible using information from the reading passage and the lecture. The question does not ask you to express your personal opinion. You may refer to the reading passage again when you write. You may use your notes to help you answer the question. Typically, an effective response will be 150 to 225 words. Your response will be judged on the quality of your writing and on the completeness and accuracy of the content. You should allow 3 minutes to read the passage. Then listen to the lecture. Then allow 20 minutes to plan and write your response.



57

READING You will have 3 minutes to read the passage.

In recent years proposals have been put forward that Lake Powell should be drained and the Glen Canyon Dam should be eventually removed. Advocates of this action intend to restore the canyon to its original, natural state. Opponents to this have urged three main points. The first is that Lake Powell attracts droves of fishermen and boaters. It is a major tourist hub for the Utah/Arizona region. Its disappearance would have a highly unfavorable effect on local economies in an area that is otherwise not particularly prosperous. Second, and probably more urgent, both Arizona and Utah are arid regions. Water is a major worry for both towns and farmer-ranchers. Lake Powell was initially created as a water source, and it serves as the major supply of water to this day. Were the lake gone, drought and water shortage would be the result. Finally, a number of exotic fish species have been introduced into the lake. If the dam is removed, these species would spread throughout the river system. It is greatly feared by biologists that this process may have a harmful effect on native fish species. The dam effectively isolates the non-native fish species from the native, allowing both populations to thrive in relative isolation from each other. Thus, the proposal to “restore” the canyon actually represents an economic and environmental threat to humans and some species of wildlife alike.



58

LISTENING Now listen to part of a lecture on the topic you just read about.

Play Audio Track Write 1



59

Question

Summarize the points made in the lecture you just heard, explaining how they cast doubt on points made in the reading. You must finish your answer in 20 minutes. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________



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TASK 2: Writing Based on Knowledge and Experience Directions: For this task, you will write an essay in response to a question that asks you to state, explain, and support your opinion on an issue. Typically, an effective essay will contain a minimum of 300 words. Your essay will be judged on the quality of your writing. This includes the development of your ideas, the organization of your essay, and the quality and accuracy of the language you use to express your ideas. You have 30 minutes to plan and complete your essay.



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Question

Imagine that a friend of yours needs help in a class, and you are one of the best students in that class. Do you think it is better that you help your friend or that he finds a tutor? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________



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Education

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