NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– VVIIIIII))

PPHHYYSSIICCAALL WWOORRLLDD,, UUNNIITTSS && MMEEAASSUURREEMMEENNTTSS,, MMOOTTIIOONN IINN AA SSTTRRAAIIGGHHTT LLIINNEE,, MMOOTTIIOONN IINN AA

PPLLAANNEE,,PPEERRIIOODDIICC TTAABBLLEE,, AATTOOMMIICC SSTTRRUUCCTTUURREE,, CCHHEEMMCCIIAALL BBOONNDDIINNGG,, BBIIOOMMOOLLEECCUULLEESS,,

PPOOLLYYMMEERRSS,, EENNVVIIRROONNMMEENNTTAALL CCHHEEMMIISSTTRRYY,, CCHHEEMMIISSTTRRYY IINN EEVVEERRYYDDAAYY LLIIFFEE,, CCEELLLL TTHHEE UNIT

OF LIFE, CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION, PLANT KINGDOM, STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN

ANIMALS, ANIMAL KINGDOM

1. Out of the following pairs, which one does not have

identical dimensions ? a) Work and torque b) Moment of inertia and moment of a force c) Impulse and momentum d) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant

2. If the velocity of light (c), the universal gravitational constant (G) and Planck’s constant (h) be chosen as fundamental quantities, the dimensions of mass are a) c1/2G-1/2h1/2 b) c-1/2G1/2h-1/2 c) c3/2G-1/2h-1/2 d) c1/2G-3/2h3/2

3. The velocity of a freely falling body varies according to gphq where g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is the height from where it is released. The values of p and q are

a) 1 1

,2 2

b) 1

2,1

c) 1, 1

2 d) 1, 1

4. The equation of state of some gases can be expressed

as 2

aP (V b) RT

V+ − =

, where the symbols have

their usual meanings. The dimensions of ‘a’ are a) ML-1T-2 b) ML5T-2 c) L6 d) ML6T-2

5. L, C and R represent the physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance, respectively. The combination which does not have the dimensions of frequency is

a) 1

RC b)

R

L c)

1

LC d)

C

L

6. The measured mass and volume of a body are 22.42 g and 4.7 cm3, respectively, with possible error in density is about a) 0.2 % b) 2 % c) 5 % d) 10 %

7. In a particular system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equivalent to a) 0.1 N b) 1 N c) 10 N d) 100 N

8. If the density of water is 1g cm-3 in CGS system, its value in MKS system is a) 1 kg m-3 b) 103 kg m-3

c) 10-3 kg m-3 d) 10-6 kg m-3

9. In a Vernier calipers, n divisions of the Vernier scale coincide with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. If the value of 1 main scale division is x mm, then the least count of the calipers, in cm, is

a) x

n b)

10x

n c)

x

10n d)

x

10(n 1)−

10. A spectrometer gives the following reading when used to measure the angle of a prism Main scale reading : 58.5 degree Vernier scale reading : 09 divisions Given that 1 division on main scale corresponds to 0.5 degree. Total divisions on the vernier scale is 30 and match with 29 divisions of the main scale. The angle of the prism from the above data is a) 58.59° b) 58.77° c) 58.65° d) 59°

11. A student is given a calorimeter made of a thin copper sheet and a Vernier calipers. The calipers has 20 divisions in a centimeter on the main scale and 25 divisions of the Vernier scale coincide with 24 divisions of the main scale. The least count of the Vernier calipers is a) 0.001 cm b) 0.002 cm c) 0.01 cm d) 0.02 cm

12. If the edge of a cube is a = 1.2 × 10-2 m, then its volume will be recorded as a) 1.728 × 10-6 m3 b) 1.73 × 10-6 m3 c) 1.7 × 10-6 m3 d) 1.8 × 10-6 m3

13. The unit of permittivity of free space, ε0, is a) coulomb / newton – metre b) newton – metre2 / coulom2 c) coulomb2 / newton – metre2 d) coulomb2 / (newton – metre)2

14. 1 Wb/m2 is equal to a) 104 G b) 102 G c) 10-2 G d) 10-4 G

15. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The unit of the constant of proportionality is a) kg m s b) kg m s-1

c) kg s-1 d) kg s 16. Two vectors A and B

� � are such that A B C+ =

� �� and

A2 + B2 = C2. The angle between them is a) 0° b) 90° c) 120° d) 180°

17. If ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆA 4i 3 j 2k and B 8i 6 j 4k= + − = + −� �

, the angle

between A and B� �

is

a) 45° b) 60° c) 0° d) 90°

Time : 3 Hours 0011..0044..1199

VVeerrssiioonn CCooddee:: AA

18. One of the two forces is double the other and their

resultant is equal to the greater force. The angle between them is

a) 1 1

cos2

−

b) 1 1

cos2

− −

c) 1 1

cos4

−

d) 1 1

cos4

− −

19. The speed of a boat is 5 km/h in still water. It crosses a river of width 1.0 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river is (in km/h) a) 1 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3

20. The forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y – direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is

a) 0.5 N b) 1.5 N

c) 3 /4 N d) 3 N 21. Two cars A and B travel along the same road in the

same direction from the same starting place. Car A maintains a speed of 50 km/h and car B 60 km/h, but B starts one hour later. How many hours will it take for B to overtake A? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

22. A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a speed υ1 and the second half with a speed υ2. The average speed during the whole journey is

a) 1 2

2

υ + υ b) 1 2

1 2

υ υ

υ + υ

c) 1 2

υ υ d) 1 2

1 2

2υ υ

υ + υ

23. A ball thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with a speed of 40 m/s strikes the base of the tower in 10 s. The height of the tower is a) 50 m b) 100 m c) 200 m d) 300 m

24. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distances travelled by it in the 4th and the 3rd second is

a) 7

5 b)

5

7 c)

7

3 d)

3

7

25. A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to a height h. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is

a) h

g b)

2h

g

c) h

2g

d) h

4g

26. The displacement x of a body varies with time t as

21x t 16t 3

3= − + +

Where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The time taken by the body to come to rest is a) 12 s b) 24 s c) 30 s d) 36 s

27. The position – time graph of an object moving in a straight line is shown below. The object has zero velocity at

a) O b) C c) D d) F

28. A bullet loses 1/20 of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least number of planks required to stop the bullet is a) 6 b) 9 c) 11 d) 13

29. The deceleration experienced by a moving motor –

boat, after its engine is cut off is given by 3dk

dt

υ= υ ,

where k is a constant. If υ0 is the magnitude of the velocity at cut – off, the magnitude of the velocity at a time t after the cut – off is

a) 0

2

02 kt 1

υ

υ + b) υ0e

-kt

c) υ0/2 d) υ0 30. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped

in a minimum distance of 2 m by applying brakes. If the same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance would be a) 4 m b) 2 m c) 6 m d) 8 m

31. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x – direction with a velocity υ that

varies as xυ = α . The displacement of the particle varies with time as a) t3 b) t2 c) t d) t1/2

32. A particle starts from rest and has an acceleration of 2 m/s2 for 10 sec. After that, it travels for 30 sec with constant speed, and then undergoes a retardation of 4 m/s2 and comes back to rest. The total distance covered by the particle is a) 650 m b) 750 m c) 700 m d) 800 m

33. A car accelerates from rest for first 10 s and covers a distance x. It covers a distance y in next 10 s at the same acceleration. Which of the following is true? a) x = 3y b) y = 3x c) x = y d) y = 2x

34. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its 20ms-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is a) 1.8 b) 9

35. A body, initially at rest, slides down from the top of the inclined plane shown in the figure. The time taken by the body to reach the bottom is

a) 2h

g

c) 2h1

sin gθ

36. The angle to projection for which height and the horizontal range of a projectile are equal is

a) 45°

c) tan-1 (4) 37. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making

an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 m/s. Then, the time after which its inclimation with the horizontal is 45°, isa) 155 c) 5.49

38. On a planet, a projectile is thrown up making an angle θ with the horizontal. The horizontal and vertical components of its dis

time t (in s) are x = 10t ; y = 10The acceleration due to gravity on the planet isa) 2 m/s2 c) 6 m/s2

39. Two projectiles are fired from the samethe same speed at angles of projection 60° and 30°, respectively. Which one of the following is true?a) Their maximum height will be sameb) Their range will be samec) Their landing velocity will be samed) Their time of flight will be same

40. A projectile can have the same angles of projection. If t1 and tin the two cases, then the product of the two times of flight is directly proportional to a) 1/R2 b) R

41. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1m whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the stone ? a) π2/4 ms-2, along the radius towards the centreb) π2 ms-2, along the radius towards the centrec) π2 ms-2, along the tangent to the centred) π2 ms-2, along the radius away from the centre

A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10ms-1 to

while passing through a distance 135 m in t

c) 10 d) 12 A body, initially at rest, slides down from the top of the inclined plane shown in the figure. The time

to reach the bottom is

b) 2

g

l

d) 2h1

sin gθ

The angle to projection for which the maximum height and the horizontal range of a projectile are

b) 1 1

tan4

−

d) tan-1 (2) A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a

of 147 m/s. Then, the time after which its inclimation with the horizontal is 45°, is

b) 10.98s d) 2.745s

On a planet, a projectile is thrown up making an with the horizontal. The horizontal and

vertical components of its displacement (in m) after

time t (in s) are x = 10t ; y = 103 t – 2t2 The acceleration due to gravity on the planet is

b) 4 m/s2 d) 8 m/s2

Two projectiles are fired from the same point with gles of projection 60° and 30°,

respectively. Which one of the following is true? a) Their maximum height will be same b) Their range will be same c) Their landing velocity will be same d) Their time of flight will be same A projectile can have the same range R for two

and t2 be the times of flight in the two cases, then the product of the two times of flight is directly proportional to

c) 1/R d) R2 A stone tied to the end of a string of 1m length is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the

, along the radius towards the centre radius towards the centre

, along the tangent to the centre , along the radius away from the centre

42. The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev/min is a) 2πc) π

43. The direction of the angular a) the tangent to the circular pathb) the inward radiusc) the outward radiusd) the axis of rotation

44. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2acceleration of the particle isa) 25 m/sc) 65 m/s

45. The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by

R 4 sin (2 t)i 4 cos (2 t) j= π + π�

where R is in metres, t is in seconds and

denote unit vectors along x and y respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of the particle?a) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 metre

b) Acceleration vectors is along

c) Magnitude of acceleration vector is

the velocity of the particled) Magnitude of the velocity of the particle is 8 metre/second

46. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of frequency ?a) Cosmic rays <b) X c) amber light < cosmic rays < X d) amber light < X

47. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible?a) n=3 b) n=2 c) n=2 d) n=1

48. An element ‘X’ has successive ionisation enthalpies 940,19500 kJ molof chloride of X is a) 14, XClc) 16, XCl

49. The value of electronegativ1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A a) 50

50. When imidazole ring of histidine is protonated, nitrogen that is protonated is a) secondary amine nitrogen outside the ring b) tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring and nitrogen outside the ring c) Tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring d) secondary amine nitrogen in the ring

The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev/min

π rad/s b) 4π2 rad/s rad/s d) 4π rad/s

The direction of the angular velocity vector is alonga) the tangent to the circular path b) the inward radius c) the outward radius d) the axis of rotation A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2π s. The acceleration of the particle is

5 m/s2 b) 36 m/s2 c) 65 m/s2 d) 15 m/s2

The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by

ˆ ˆR 4 sin (2 t)i 4 cos (2 t) j= π + π�

where R is in metres, t is in seconds and i and

denote unit vectors along x and y – directions, respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of the particle? a) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 metre

b) Acceleration vectors is along - R�

c) Magnitude of acceleration vector is 2

R

υwhere

the velocity of the particle d) Magnitude of the velocity of the particle is 8 metre/second Which of the following is the correct increasing order of frequency ? a) Cosmic rays < X –rays < amber light b) X – rays< amber light < Cosmic rays c) amber light < cosmic rays < X –rays ) amber light < X – rays < cosmic rays

Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible? a) n=3 ℓ = 3 mℓ = -3 ms = + ½ b) n=2 ℓ = 1 mℓ = 2 ms = - ½ c) n=2 ℓ = 0 mℓ =0 ms = + ½ d) n=1 ℓ = 0 mℓ =0 ms = 0 An element ‘X’ has successive ionisation enthalpies 940, 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030,7870, 160000 and 19500 kJ mol-1 respectively . The group and formula of chloride of X is a) 14, XCl4 b) 15, XCl5 c) 16, XCl2 d) 17, XCl

The value of electronegativity of atom A and B are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A – B bond is a) 50 b) 72.24 c) 55.3 d) 43 When imidazole ring of histidine is protonated, nitrogen that is protonated is a) secondary amine – nitrogen in the ring – nitrogen outside the ring b) tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring and nitrogen outside the ring c) Tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring d) secondary amine nitrogen in the ring

The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev/min

velocity vector is along

A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with s. The

The position vector of a particle as a function of time

and j

directions, respectively. Which one of the following statements

a) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 metre

where υ is

d) Magnitude of the velocity of the particle is 8

Which of the following is the correct increasing order

Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers

An element ‘X’ has successive ionisation enthalpies 3090, 4140, 7030,7870, 160000 and

respectively . The group and formula

ity of atom A and B are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic

When imidazole ring of histidine is protonated,

and

b) tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring and nitrogen

51. Adenosine is an example of a) Nucleotide b) purine base c) pyrimidine base d) nucleoside

52. Which of the following is a trisaccharide a) cellobiose b) stachyrose c) Raffinose d) Lychnose

53. Select the correct statements a)P – chlorometaxylenol and dichloro metaxylenol are antibacterial and deodorants b) BHT and BHA are food antioxidants c) SO2 and SO3

2- are antioxidants for wine and beers d) All of the above are correct

54. Natural rubber is not used in making foot wear for polar regions because a) Natural rubber becomes soft at temperature lower than 10oC b) natural rubber becomes brittle at temperature lower than 10oC c) Natural rubber has maximum water absorption capacity at temperature lower than 10oC d) Natural rubber melts at temperature lower than 10oC

55. Which one of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog a) Ozone b)Acrolein c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate d) Chloro fluoro carbons

56. Hamiltonian operator H is the sum of two energy operators. These are, a) mechanical and potential b) kinetic and mechanical c) thermal and mechanical d) kinetic and potential

57. An electron, practically at rest, is initially accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volts. It then has a De Broglie wave length λ 1Å. It then get retarded

through 19 volts and then has a wavelength λ 2Å. Further retarding through 32 volts changes the

wavelength to λ 3, what is 3 2

1

λ − λλ

?

a) 20

41 b)

10

63 c)

20

63 d)

20

41

58. The configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p5, 3s1 shows

a) excited state of O2−

b) excited state of Ne atom c) excited state of F atom d) ground state of F atom

59. If the shortest wavelength of H – atom in Lyman series is x, then the longest wavelength in Balmer series of He+ is

a) 9

5

x b)

36

5

x

c)

4

x d)

5

9

x

60. What is the orbital angular momentum of an electron in f- orbital

a) 1.5 h

π b)

6h

π

c) 3h

π d)

3h

π

61. The correct order of the O – O bond length in O2, H2O2, O3 is a) O2 > O3 > H2O2 b) O3 > H2O2 > O2 c) O2 > H2O2 > O3 d) H2O2 > O3 > O2

62. Which one of the following exhibits the maximum covalent character a) FeCl2 b) AlCl3 c) MgCl3 d) SnCl2

63. Natural and synthetic homo polymers are respectively a) Nylon -6, Nylon -6, 6 b) Natural rubber, Buna – S c) Nylon -6, Neoprene d) Natural rubber, Neoprene

64. The two monomers used in the preparation of dextron are a) 3- hydroxyl butanoic acid and 3 – hydroxypentanoic acid b) ∈- aminocaproic acid and glycine c) isobutylene and isoprene d) lactic acid and glycolic acid

65. Aspirin is used to cure alzheimer’s disease which is caused by a) Al3+ b) Mg2+ c) Fe3+ d) Zn2+

66. The velocity of an electron in second shell of hydrogen atom is a) 10.91 ×106 ms-1 b) 18.88 ×106 ms-1 c) 1.888 ×106 ms-1 d) 1.091 ×106 ms-1

67. The compound not acting as a reducing agent is a) SO2 b) ScO2 c) TeO2 d) All of these

68. The metal with highest IE is due to a) Lanthanoid contraction b) Smallest size c) large no of electrons d) noble metal

69. The effective nuclear charge on tenth d –e- of Zn with atomic number 30 is a) 21.15 b) 8.85 c) 4.35 d) 3.90

70. The correct order of van der waal’s radius is a) Na > Cl >Ne b) Na < Cl > Ne c) Na < Cl < Ne d) Na< Cl = Ne

71. In which of the following properties did Be shows similarities with Al A) Both are comparatively stable in air B) They have no tendency to form peroxide and superoxide C) Both provide colour to Bunsen flame D) Both form coloured solution in liq. NH3 E) The oxides and hydroxides of both elements are amphoteric a) A,B,C,D b) A,B,C c) A,B,E d) A,D,C

72. In the formation of NO+ from NO, the electron will be removed from a) π orbital b) π* orbital c) σ orbital d) σ* orbital

73. Which of the following is correct order for melting point? a) H2O > NH3 > HF > CH4 b) NH3 > H2O > HF > CH4 c) HF > NH3 > H2O > CH4 d) HF > H2O > NH3 > CH4

74. The hybridisation scheme for the central atom includes a d – orbital contribution is a) I3

- b) PCl3 c) NO3

- d) H2Se 75. Which of the following set of molecules contain the

same number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom. a) SO2, ClF3, BrF3 b) SF4, NH3, O3 c) ClF3, XeF2, H2O d) H2O, SF4, NH3

76. Which of the following is paramagnetic? a) CO b) O2

- c) CN- d) NO+ 77. The most stable compound is

a) LiF b) LiCl c) LiBr d) LiI

78. Sucrose on treatment with con.HCl produce a) glucose b) fructose c) glucose and fructose d) Laevunilic acid

79. Which of the following reactions establishes difference between glucose and fructose? a) Tollen’s reagent reaction b) Fehling test c) Phenyl hydrazine test d) Con. HNO3

80. Interferon is a) the commercial name given to a tonic containing iron b) an alloy of iron and chromium used in space vessels c) a protein derived from the body against viruses d) a trade name of a potend insecticide

81. Overdosing on vitamins A and D is more likely than overdosing on vitamin C because a) vitamin A and D are fat soluble and thus can accumulate in body fat, whereas vitamin C is water soluble and the excess will be excreated in urine b) Vitamin C is fat soluble and thus, can accumulate in body fat, where vitamins A and D are water soluble and the excess will be excreted in urine c) Vitamin C is biologically active as consumed in foods, but vitamins A and D must be converted into biologically active forms before utilisation d) vitamins A and D are biologically active as consumed in food, but vitamin C must be converted into biologically active forms before utilisation

82. The turbidity of a polymer solution measures a a) Light absorbed by the solution b) Light transmitted by the solution c) Light scattered by the solution d) Polymer solution cannot absorb light

83. Acrylonitrile can be synthesised via

a) CH2 = CH – CH3 + NO 1000 ,→K Ag

b) CH2 = CH – CH3 +NH3 +O2 700

,3→K

FeO atom

c) CH2 = CH2 2→O

Ag →HCN

3

500→KMgCO

d) All of these 84. Gutta percha has

a) All cis – configuration b) alternate cis and trans configuration c) random cis and trans configuration d) All trans – configuration

85. Which of the following is a polymer? a) carnauba wax b) carbowax c) Bees wax d) Paraffin wax

86. Salol is a) acetyl salicylic acid b) phenyl salicylate c) methyl salicylate d) ethyl salicylate

87. A newer family of very effective lactains antibiotics is a) ampicillin b) amoxicillin c) cephalosporin’s d) Phenobarbital

88. Which of the following enhances the leathering property of soap? a) Sodium carbonate b) Sodium rosinate c) Sodium steal ate d) Trisodium phosphate

89. Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause a) methemoglobinemia b) kidney damage c) Liver damage d) Laxative effect

90. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Pneumoconiosis is caused by inhalation of silica dust b) Lung cancer is caused by textiles c) NO2 and CH4 acts as a sink for chlorine free radicals d) Algae is a viable particulate

91. Who proposed the ‘cell theory’ a) Schleiden and Schwann b) Watson and crick c) Mendel and Morgan d) Robert Hooke

92. Which of the following is the exception of cell theory a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Lichen d) Virus

93. Which of the following is seen only in prokaryotic cell a) Dictyosome b) Ribosome c) Mesosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum

94. The smallest living cells a) Viroids b) Algae c) Bacteria d) Mycoplasma

95. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotic a) DNA b) RNA c) Plasma membrane d) Mitochondria

96. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched a) Cristae The “shelves” formed by

the folding of the inner Membrane of the mitochondrium

b) Plasmodesmata The membrane surrounding the vacuole in plants

c) Grana Membrane bound disc in chloroplast that contain chlorophyll and carotenoids

d) Middle lamella Layer between adjacent cell walls in plants derived from cell plate.

97. The word “prokaryote” means a cell a) With many nuclei b) With one nucleus c) With diffused nucleus d) Without chloroplast

98. Which of the following is not a cell organelle a) Mitochondria b) Ribosome c) Golgi complex d) Microsome

99. The main difference between plant and animal cell is a) Animal cells lack cell wall b) Plant cell has no cell wall c) Animal cell has a rigid cell wall d) Plant cell lack cell membrane

100. Cytoplasm of one cell is connected with other through a) Plasmalemma b) Plasmodesmata c) Plastoquinones d) Endoplasmic reticulum

101. Middle lamella is made up of a) Cellulose b) Suberin c) Calcium and Magnesium pectate d) Lignin

102. Plasma membrane consists of a) Protein’s embedded in carbohydrate bilayer b) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer c) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer d) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

103. The amount of which of the element is greatest in protoplasm a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Carbon

104. Mitochondria perform all of the following functions except a) Nuclear acid synthesis b) β-oxidation of fatty acids c) ATP synthesis d) Polysaccharide degradation

105. Mitochondria are related to a) Prokaryotes b) Plasmids c) Plastids d) Viruses

106. Folding of inner membrane of mitochondria are called a) Cristae b) Grana c) Calcium oxalate crystals d) Sacs

107. Autonomic genome system is present in a) Ribosomes and chloroplast b) Mitochondria and ribosomes c) Mitochondria and chloroplast d) Golgi bodies and mitochondria

108. Which of the following is correct pair a) DNA synthesis ---- Ribosomes b) Protein synthesis --- Smooth ER c) Aerobic respiration – Cristae d) Suicidal bags --- Dictyosomes

109. Plant cell differ from animal cell because of a) The presence of cell wall and absence of chlorophyll in plant cells

b) Presence of cell wall & chlorophyll in plant cell c) The absence of cell wall & presence of chloroplast in animal cell d) Absence of cell wall & presence of chlorophyll in plant cell

110. Thylakoids are constituents of a) Chloroplast b) Mitochondria c) ER d) Ribosomes

111. Read the following statements and select the correct ones i) In simple cuboidal epithelium, nuclei are rounded and lie in the centre of the cells ii) Non – keratinized epithelium is impermeable to water iii) Yellow elastic fibrocartilage makes cartilage flexible iv) Areolar tissue forms a shock absorbing cushion around the eye balls and kidneys a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (ii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)

112. Which of the following is a transparent tissue ? a) Tendon b) Fibrous cartilage c) Hyaline cartilage d) All of these

113. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column II A Hyaline

cartilage i Pectoral girdle of frog

B Fibrous cartilage

ii Long bones, sternum, ribs

C Elastic cartilage

iii Public symphysis

D Calcified cartilage

iv Eustachian tube, epiglottis

a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) c) A –(ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i) d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

114. Consider the following statements (i) – (iii), each with one or two blanks i) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in (1) and (2) which give bone its strength ii) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialized for secretion and are called (3) epithelium iii) (4), functions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blanks from (1) to (4) in the statements ? a) (3) – glandular, (4) – Tight b) (1)- calcium salts, (2) – collagen fibres, (3) – compound, (4) – Excretory c) (3) – glandular, (4) – Adhering d) (1) – magnesium salts, (2) – elastic fibres, (3) – compound

115. Given figures (I and II) show two specialized connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the parts labeled as A and B

I II a) Carti

lage Bone Collagen

fibres b) Carti

lage Bone Collagen

fibres c) Bone Carti

lage Microtubu les

d) Bone Carti lage

Collagen fibres

116. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column IIA Simple

columnar i Wall of heart epithelium

B Cardiac muscle

ii Bone joints

C Adipose tissue

iii Inner lining of stomach

D Hyaline cartilage

iv Below the skin in the abdomen, buttocks, thighs and breasts

v Diaphragm a) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D b) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (ii), D c) A –(i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D

117. Cardiac muscle cells differ from striated muscle cells in having a) A centrally located nucleus b) Different myofibrils c) Fewer mitochondria d) No sarcoplasmic reticulum

118. Read the following statements and select the correct option (i) Blood cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen and elastin (ii) Neuroglial cells protect and support the nephrons (iii) Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae (iv) Striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion (v) Biceps are involuntary and striated a) Statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect b) Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect c) Statements (i) and (iii) are incorrect d) Statements (i), (ii) and (v) are incorrect

119. Which of the following figures shows the mandibles of cockroach ?

Given figures (I and II) show two specialized connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the

A B

Collagen fibres

Chondrocyte

Collagen fibres

Chondroclast

Microtubu Osteoblast

Collagen fibres

Osteoblast

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column II Wall of heart epithelium

Bone joints

Inner lining of stomach

Below the skin in the abdomen, buttocks, thighs and breasts Diaphragm

(ii), D – (iv) (ii), D – (iv)

(iv), D – (v) (iv), D – (ii)

Cardiac muscle cells differ from striated muscle cells

a) A centrally located nucleus

d) No sarcoplasmic reticulum Read the following statements and select the correct

(i) Blood cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen and elastin (ii) Neuroglial cells protect and support the nephrons (iii) Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae iv) Striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a

(v) Biceps are involuntary and striated a) Statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect b) Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect c) Statements (i) and (iii) are incorrect

(i), (ii) and (v) are incorrect Which of the following figures shows the mandibles

120. In the given diagram of a leg of cockroach, parts have been indicated by alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matchewith the parts which they indicate

a

b

c

d

121. The given figure represents posterior region of male cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D

a

b

c

d

In the given diagram of a leg of cockroach, parts have been indicated by alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matchewith the parts which they indicate

A B C D

Coxa Tibia Tarsus Femur Trochanter

Coxa Femur Trochan ter

Tarsus Tibia

Coxa Tarsus Femur Tibia Trochanter

Coxa Trochanter

Femur Tibia Tarsus

The given figure represents posterior region of male cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and

A B C D

9th sternum

Anal style 10th tergum

Anal circus

Anal style

Anal circus

10th tergum

9th sternum

9th sternum

Anal circus

10th tergum

Anal style

9th tergum

Anal circus

10th sternum

Anal style

In the given diagram of a leg of cockroach, parts have been indicated by alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched

E Trochanter Tibia

Trochanter Tarsus

The given figure represents posterior region of male cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and

Anal circus

sternum

Anal style

Anal style

122. Read the following statement having two blanks A and B in cockroach. a ring of 6 called (A) is present at the junction of foregut and midgut while at the junction of midgut and hindgut a ring of 100 – 150 yellow coloured thin filamentius (B) is present The one correct option that fills the two blanks is

A a) Malpighian tubules b) Fat bodies c) Hepatic caecae

d) Vas deferens 123. Read the given paragraph

“It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. It absorbs nitrogenous waste products from convert them into uric acid which is excreted out though the hindgut” Which of the following structures of cockroach is referred here ? a) Trachea b) Hepatic caecum c) Tergum d) Malpighian tubule

124. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding cockroach ? a) Head is oval in shape b) There are 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen) c) Heart is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with setae on either side d) Each eye consists of about 1000 hexagonal ommatidia

125. Read the following statements about cockroachi) In male cockroach, a characteristic mushroom shaped gland is present in the 6segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland. ii) Cockroach is uricotelic iii) The fat body and uricose glands are glandular in function iv) Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses againWhich of the above statements are correct ? a) (i), (ii) and (iv) c) (i) and (iv)

126. Read the statements with regard to frog. Which of the statements is / are correct and incorrect ? i) The medulla oblongata passesof Monro and continues into spinal cord ii) Vasa efferentia are 10 from testes iii)Ovaries have no functional connection with kidneys iv) Frogs are uricotelic a) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct statement (iv) is incorrect b) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct while statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct while statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect d) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct whstatement (i) is incorrect

Read the following statement having two blanks A and B in cockroach. a ring of 6 – 8 blind tubules

is present at the junction of foregut and while at the junction of midgut and hindgut a

150 yellow coloured thin filamentius

The one correct option that fills the two blanks is B

Malpighian tubules Hepatic ceacae Vasa efferebtia Malpighian tubules Fat bodies

“It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. It absorbs nitrogenous waste products from haemocoel and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out

Which of the following structures of cockroach is

b) Hepatic caecum d) Malpighian tubule

Which one of the following statements is correct

b) There are 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax

c) Heart is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers

d) Each eye consists of about 1000 hexagonal

Read the following statements about cockroach i) In male cockroach, a characteristic mushroom shaped gland is present in the 6th – 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory

iii) The fat body and uricose glands are glandular in

iv) Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again Which of the above statements are correct ?

b) (ii) and (iii) d) (ii) and (iv)

Read the statements with regard to frog. Which of the statements is / are correct and incorrect ? i) The medulla oblongata passes out through foramen of Monro and continues into spinal cord ii) Vasa efferentia are 10 – 12 in number that arise

iii)Ovaries have no functional connection with

a) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct while

b) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct while statements

c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct while statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect d) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct while

127. Refer to the given figures showing two types of glands

Which of the following statements regarding these glands is not correct a) These are the multicellular glands which pour their secretions directly through ducts at tb) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are ‘P’ type of glands c) Brunner’s glands of human intenstine and sweat glands of human skin are ‘Q’ type of glands d) In ‘P’ type of glands, secretoryof flask like structure where in ‘Q’ type of glands, secretory portion is both tubular and flask shaped.

128. Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct ?i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with littii) In almost all animal tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells iii) Tight functions prevent substances from leaking across a tissue iv) Adhering junctions providneighbouring cells together v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules a) (ii) and (iii) c) (iv) and (v)

129. ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their arteries preserved due to the presence of a) Yellow elastic connective tissue fibres b) While fibrous connective tissue fibres c) Cartilage d) Valves

130. Which of the following statements is /regarding connective tissues i) They are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals ii) They connect and support other tissues iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose and othtissuesiv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins like collagen and elastin a) (iv) only c) (i) and (ii)

Refer to the given figures showing two types of glands

Which of the following statements regarding these glands is not correct a) These are the multicellular glands which pour their secretions directly through ducts at the site of action b) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are ‘P’ type of glands c) Brunner’s glands of human intenstine and sweat glands of human skin are ‘Q’ type of glands d) In ‘P’ type of glands, secretory portion comprises of flask like structure where in ‘Q’ type of glands, secretory portion is both tubular and flask shaped. Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct ? i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with litt le intercellular materials ii) In almost all animal tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells iii) Tight functions prevent substances from leaking across a tissue iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules a) (ii) and (iii) b) (i), (ii) and (iii) c) (iv) and (v) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their arteries preserved due to the presence of a) Yellow elastic connective tissue fibres b) While fibrous connective tissue fibres c) Cartilage d) Valves Which of the following statements is / are not correct regarding connective tissues i) They are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals ii) They connect and support other tissues iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose and other loose connective tissues iv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins like collagen and elastin a) (iv) only b) (v) only c) (i) and (ii) d) (iii) and (v)

Refer to the given figures showing two types of

Which of the following statements regarding these

a) These are the multicellular glands which pour their he site of action

b) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are ‘P’

c) Brunner’s glands of human intenstine and sweat

portion comprises of flask like structure where in ‘Q’ type of glands, secretory portion is both tubular and flask shaped. Which of the following statements about cell

i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together

ii) In almost all animal tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between

iii) Tight functions prevent substances from leaking

e cementing to keep

v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules

(ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their arteries

are not correct

i) They are most abundant and widely distributed in

iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, er loose connective

iv) They form the internal and external lining of

v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins like collagen and

131. Areolar connective tissue joins a) Bone with bone b) Fat body with muscles c) Integument with muscles d) None of these

132. Chlorophyll a and c are predominantly seen in a) Spirogyra b) Chara c) Polysiphonia d) Dictyota

133. Which is true about haplontic life cycle a) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the one celled zygote b) There are no free living sporophytes c) Chlamydomonas is an example d) All of these

134. The leaves in pteridophytes are known as a) Protonema b) Macrophylles c) Microphylls d) Both b & c

135. Name the green algae that possess gametes that are non flagellated, but similar in size? a) Chlamydomonas b) Spirogyra c) Volvox d) Fucus

136. The microscopic angiosperms is a) Ginkgo b) Salvinia c) Gelidium d) Wolfia

137. Consider the following statements A) Ovules are not possessed by gymnosperms B) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species C) Roots are generally tap roots in gymnosperms D) Stems are branched in cycas and unbranched in pinus and cedrus a) Only A is incorrect b) All are correct except D c) All are incorrect except B & C d) All are incorrect except B

138. Find correct statement a) Selaginalla comes under lycopsida b) Lycopodium is pteridophyte c) Equisetum contains strobilus d) All of these

139. Polytrichum is a a) Pteriodphyte b) Moss c) Red algae d) Fungi

140. Find the incorrect statement a) Artificial systems gave equal weightage to sexual and vegetative characters b) Natural classification systems were based on natural affinities among organisms c) Chemotaxonomy uses chemical constituents of plants to resolve confusions in classification d) None of these

141. Choose the incorrect statement regarding bryophytes a) Plant body is Thallus like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids b) Main plant body is haploid c) Sex organs are either unicellular or multicellular d) Antheridium produce biflagellated antherozoids and archegonium produces a single egg

142. Find out the mismatched pair a) Wolfia - Double fertilization b) Sellaginella - heterosporous c) Ectocarpous - Green algae d) Adiantum - Pteropsida

143. Roots of pinus seedling are associated with a) Fungus b) Algae c) Bacteria d) Cyanobacteria

144. Which of the following is a Phaeophycean alga? a) Porphyra b) Laminaria c) Gelidium d) Polysiphonia

145. The male or female strobili borne on the same tree in a) Wolffia b) Equisetum c) Pinus d) Cycas

146. Odd one out a) Chara b) Chlamydomonas c) Spirogyra d) Polysiphonia

147. Which is false about mosses A) The Protonema stage is a creeping, green, unbranched stage B) Leafy stage consist of upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves C) Vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation and budding D) Spores are formed after mitosis a) Only A & B b) Only A c) Only D d) Only A & D

148. Which is a diplontic algae a) Ectocarpus b) Fucus c) Kelps d) Spirogyra

149. Angiosperms show a) Haplontic life cycle b) Diplontic life cycle c) Haplo diplontic life cycle d) No life cycle

150. Adiantum belongs to the class a) Psilopsida b) Lycopsida c) Sphenopsida d) Pteropsida

151. Two unequal flagella is present in a) Phaeophyceae b) Chlorophyceae c) Rhodophyceae d) Red algae

152. Egg apparatus consist of a) One egg cell b) One egg cell and three synergids c) One egg cell and three antipodals d) One egg cell and two synergids

153. Which one of the following statements about all the four of spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct? a) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic b) Leech is a fresh water form, while all others are marine c) Spongilla has special collar cells called choanocytes which are not found in the remaining three d) All are bilaterally symmetrical animals

154. Four pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum is seen in --- a) Petromyzon b) Aedes c) Hippocampus d) Dogfish

155. Which of the following does not possess internal fertilization and indirect development a) Scypha b) Fasciola c) Spongilla d) Ctenoplana

156. Choose the correct combination of generic name and common name of the following lizards.

Generic name Common name i chelone A Garden lizard ii Testudo B Tree lizard iii chameleon C Tortoise iv calotes D Turtle

a) i-C ii-D iii-B iv-A b) i-D ii-C iii-B iv-A c) i-D ii-A iii-C iv-B d) i-A ii-D iii-C iv-B

157. Choose the odd one a) Scoliodon b) Pristis c) Carcharodon d) Myxine

158. “A multicellular animal possessing organ level of organization acoelomate and having bilateral symmetry”. The above statement applicable to the phylum a) Annelida b) Platy helminthes c) Aschelminthes d) Arthropoda

159. Placoid scales are found in a) Cartilagionous fishes/sharks/chondrichthyes b) Bony fishes/osteichthyes c) Lung fishes d) All the above

160. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct? a)Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates b) Molluses are acoelomates c) Insects are pseudocoelomates d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

161. The adults are radially symmetrical but larvae exhibt bilateral symmetry in a) Mollusca b) Hemichordata c) Echinodermata d) Cephalochordata

162. Euspongia belongs to a group of animals which are best described as a) Unicellular or acellular b)Multicellular with cellular level of organization c) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system d)Unicellular having tissue grade of organization, but no body cavity

163. Ctenoplana shows a) Hooks & suckers b) Hypostome c) Bioluminescence d) Muscular pharynx

164. Which of the following is not true about phylum annelida a) They possess longitudinal and circular muscles b) Closed circulatory system c) Aquatic annelids possess lateral appendages d) All are true

165. Choose the statement true about arthropoda a) This is the largest phylum of Animalia includes insects b) The body is covered by chitinous exoskelton c) The body consist of head, thorax and abdomen d) All of these

166. Body is supported by spicules, hermaphrodite & digestion is intracellular characteristics of which phylum a) Cnidaria b) Ctenophora c) Porifera d) Platyhemithes

167. Which of the following is also known as Exocoetus? a) Cuttle fish b) Devil fish c) Jelly fish d) Flying fish

168. The only phyla in which pseudocoelomate condition is seeing a) Porifera b) Platyhelminathas c) Aschelminthes d) Arthropoda

169. Find out the statement (s) which are incorrect a) In pila visceral hump is seen b) Molluscans are bilaterally symmetrical c)Water vascular system helps in respiration in echinodermates d) None of these

170. Ascidia salpa lancelet included under a) Urochordata b) Branchiostoma c) Protochordata d) Cephalo chordate

171. Select the correct match A) S phase - DNA replication B) Zygotene - Synapsis C) Diplotene - Crossing over D) G1 phase - Quiescent stage a) A & B b) C & D c) C & A d) A, C & D

172. Find the wrong statement? a) Metaphase is characterized by all chromosomes coming to lie at the equator. b) At the onset of anaphase each chromosome arranged at the metaphase plate is split. c) Nucleolus and ER reform during Anaphase d) None of these

173. Synapsis occurs during a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene

174. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated? a) Prophase II b) Prophase I c) Anaphase II d) Telophase I

175. Which one is a parasitic algae a) Vaucheria b) Polysiphonia c) Cephaleuros d) Batrachospermum

176. Pyrenoids are characteristically found in th chloroplast of a) Fungi b) Algae c) Gymnosperm d) Angiosperms

177. Poikilotherms are also known as a) Isotherm b) Ectotherm c) Endotherm d) Heterotherm

178. Blind sac body plan is shown by a) Roundworms b) Annelids c) Coelenterates d) Arthropods

179. Which one of the following does not have larvae in its life cycle a) Prawn b) Earthworm c) Crab d) Cockroach

180. Parenchymula is the larva of a) Hydra b) Ascaris c) Pheretima d) Leucosolenia

NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– VVIIIIII))

PPHHYYSSIICCAALL WWOORRLLDD,, UUNNIITTSS && MMEEAASSUURREEMMEENNTTSS,, MMOOTTIIOONN IINN AA SSTTRRAAIIGGHHTT LLIINNEE,, MMOOTTIIOONN IINN AA

PPLLAANNEE,,PPEERRIIOODDIICC TTAABBLLEE,, AATTOOMMIICC SSTTRRUUCCTTUURREE,, CCHHEEMMCCIIAALL BBOONNDDIINNGG,, BBIIOOMMOOLLEECCUULLEESS,,

PPOOLLYYMMEERRSS,, EENNVVIIRROONNMMEENNTTAALL CCHHEEMMIISSTTRRYY,, CCHHEEMMIISSTTRRYY IINN EEVVEERRYYDDAAYY LLIIFFEE,, CCEELLLL TTHHEE UNIT

OF LIFE, CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION, PLANT KINGDOM, STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN

ANIMALS, ANIMAL KINGDOM

1. If the velocity of light (c), the universal gravitational constant (G) and Planck’s constant (h) be chosen as fundamental quantities, the dimensions of mass are a) c1/2G-1/2h1/2 b) c-1/2G1/2h-1/2 c) c3/2G-1/2h-1/2 d) c1/2G-3/2h3/2

2. The velocity of a freely falling body varies according to gphq where g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is the height from where it is released. The values of p and q are

a) 1 1

,2 2

b) 1

2,1

c) 1, 1

2 d) 1, 1

3. L, C and R represent the physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance, respectively. The combination which does not have the dimensions of frequency is

a) 1

RC b)

R

L c)

1

LC d)

C

L

4. The measured mass and volume of a body are 22.42 g and 4.7 cm3, respectively, with possible error in density is about a) 0.2 % b) 2 % c) 5 % d) 10 %

5. In a particular system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equivalent to a) 0.1 N b) 1 N c) 10 N d) 100 N

6. In a Vernier calipers, n divisions of the Vernier scale coincide with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. If the value of 1 main scale division is x mm, then the least count of the calipers, in cm, is

a) x

n b)

10x

n

c) x

10n d)

x

10(n 1)−

7. A spectrometer gives the following reading when used to measure the angle of a prism Main scale reading : 58.5 degree Vernier scale reading : 09 divisions Given that 1 division on main scale corresponds to 0.5 degree. Total divisions on the vernier scale is 30 and match with 29 divisions of the main scale. The angle of the prism from the above data is a) 58.59° b) 58.77° c) 58.65° d) 59°

8. A student is given a calorimeter made of a thin copper sheet and a Vernier calipers. The calipers has 20 divisions in a centimeter on the main scale and 25 divisions of the Vernier scale coincide with 24 divisions of the main scale. The least count of the Vernier calipers is a) 0.001 cm b) 0.002 cm c) 0.01 cm d) 0.02 cm

9. The unit of permittivity of free space, ε0, is a) coulomb / newton – metre b) newton – metre2 / coulom2 c) coulomb2 / newton – metre2 d) coulomb2 / (newton – metre)2

10. 1 Wb/m2 is equal to a) 104 G b) 102 G c) 10-2 G d) 10-4 G

11. Two vectors A and B� �

are such that A B C+ =� ��

and

A2 + B2 = C2. The angle between them is a) 0° b) 90° c) 120° d) 180°

12. If ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆA 4i 3j 2k and B 8i 6 j 4k= + − = + −� �

, the angle

between A and B� �

is

a) 45° b) 60° c) 0° d) 90° 13. One of the two forces is double the other and their

resultant is equal to the greater force. The angle between them is

a) 1 1cos

2

−

b) 1 1

cos2

− −

c) 1 1cos

4

−

d) 1 1cos

4

− −

14. The forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y – direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is

a) 0.5 N b) 1.5 N

c) 3 /4 N d) 3 N

Time : 3 Hours 0011..0044..1199

VVeerrssiioonn CCooddee:: BB

15. A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a speed υ1 and the second half with a speed average speed during the whole journey is

a) 1 2

2

υ + υ

c) 1 2

υ υ

16. A ball thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with a speed of 40 m/s strikes the base of the tower in 10 s. The height of the tower isa) 50 m c) 200 m

17. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distances travelled by it in the 4th and the 3rd second is

a) 7

5 b)

5

7 c)

18. A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to a height h. The time taken by the stonground is

a) h

g b)

2h

g

19. The displacement x of a body varies with time t as

21x t 16t 3

3= − + +

Where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The time taken by the body to come to rest isa) 12 s b) 24 s

20. The position – time graph of an object moving in a straight line is shown below. The object has zero velocity at

a) O b) C c21. A bullet loses 1/20 of its velocity in passing through

a plank. The least number of planks required to stop the bullet is a) 6 b) 9

22. The deceleration experienced by a moving motor

boat, after its engine is cut off is given

where k is a constant. If υvelocity at cut – off, the magnitude of the velocity at a time t after the cut – off is

a) 0

2

02 kt 1

υ

υ + b) υ0e

-kt

23. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped in a minimum distance of 2 m by applying brakes. If the same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance would bea) 4 m b) 2 m

A car covers the first half of a certain distance with a and the second half with a speed υ2. The

average speed during the whole journey is

b) 1 2

1 2

υ υ

υ + υ

d) 1 2

1 2

2υ υ

υ + υ

A ball thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with a speed of 40 m/s strikes the base of the tower in 10 s. The height of the tower is

b) 100 m d) 300 m

A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distances travelled by it

second is

c) 7

3 d)

3

7 A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to a height h. The time taken by the stone to reach the

c) h

2g

d) h

4g

The displacement x of a body varies with time t as

metres and t is in seconds. The time taken by the body to come to rest is

c) 30 s d) 36 s time graph of an object moving in a

straight line is shown below. The object has zero

c) D d) F

A bullet loses 1/20 of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least number of planks required to stop

c) 11 d) 13 The deceleration experienced by a moving motor –

boat, after its engine is cut off is given by 3dk

dt

υ= υ ,

υ0 is the magnitude of the off, the magnitude of the velocity at

off is

c) υ0/2 d) υ0

speed of 40 km/h can be stopped in a minimum distance of 2 m by applying brakes. If the same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance would be

c) 6 m d) 8 m

24. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, staralong the positive x

varies as varies with time asa) t3

25. A particle starts from rest and has an acceleration of 2 m/sconstant speed, and then undergoes a retardation of 4 m/s2

covered by the particle isa) 650 m

26. A particle moves in a acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10ms20mssecond. The value of t isa) 1.8

27. A body, initially at rest, slides down from the top of the inctaken by the body to reach the bottom is

a)

c) sin

28. The angle to projection for which the maximum height and the horizontal range of a projectile are equal is

a) 45°

29. On a planet, a projectile is thrown up making an angle vertical components of its displacement (in m) after

time t (in s) are x = 10t ; y = 10The acceleration due to gravity on the planet isa) 2 m/s

30. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If tin the two cases, then the product of the two times of flight is directly proportional to a) 1/R

31. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1m length is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the stone ?a) π2

b) π2

c) π2

d) π2

32. The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev/min is a) 2πc) π

A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x – direction with a velocity υ

varies as xυ = α . The displacement of the particle varies with time as

b) t2 c) t d) t1/2

A particle starts from rest and has an acceleration of2 m/s2 for 10 sec. After that, it travels for 30 sec with constant speed, and then undergoes a retardation of 4

2 and comes back to rest. The total distance covered by the particle is a) 650 m b) 750 m c) 700 m d) 800 mA particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10ms-1 to 20ms-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is a) 1.8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 12 A body, initially at rest, slides down from the top of the inclined plane shown in the figure. The time taken by the body to reach the bottom is

2h

g b)

2

g

l

2h1sin gθ d)

2h1sin gθ

The angle to projection for which the maximum height and the horizontal range of a projectile are equal is

a) 45° b) 1 1tan

4

−

c) tan-1 (4) d) tan-1 (2)

On a planet, a projectile is thrown up making an angle θ with the horizontal. The horizontal and vertical components of its displacement (in m) after

time t (in s) are x = 10t ; y = 103 t – 2t2 The acceleration due to gravity on the planet is a) 2 m/s2 b) 4 m/s2 c) 6 m/s2 d) 8 m/s2

projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in the two cases, then the product of the two times of flight is directly proportional to a) 1/R2 b) R c) 1/R d) RA stone tied to the end of a string of 1m length is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the stone ?

2/4 ms-2, along the radius towards the centre 2 ms-2, along the radius towards the centre 2 ms-2, along the tangent to the centre 2 ms-2, along the radius away from the centre

The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev/min

π rad/s b) 4π2 rad/s rad/s d) 4π rad/s

ts moving υ that

. The displacement of the particle

A particle starts from rest and has an acceleration of or 10 sec. After that, it travels for 30 sec with

constant speed, and then undergoes a retardation of 4 and comes back to rest. The total distance

d) 800 m straight line with a constant

to while passing through a distance 135 m in t

A body, initially at rest, slides down from the top of lined plane shown in the figure. The time

The angle to projection for which the maximum height and the horizontal range of a projectile are

(2)

On a planet, a projectile is thrown up making an with the horizontal. The horizontal and

vertical components of its displacement (in m) after

2

projectile can have the same range R for two be the times of flight

in the two cases, then the product of the two times of

d) R2 A stone tied to the end of a string of 1m length is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the

The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev/min

33. The direction of the angular velocity vector is along a) the tangent to the circular path b) the inward radius c) the outward radius d) the axis of rotation

34. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2π s. The acceleration of the particle is a) 25 m/s2 b) 36 m/s2 c) 65 m/s2 d) 15 m/s2

35. The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by

ˆ ˆR 4 sin (2 t)i 4 cos (2 t) j= π + π�

where R is in metres, t is in seconds and i and j

denote unit vectors along x and y – directions, respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of the particle? a) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 metre b) Acceleration vectors is along - R

�

c) Magnitude of acceleration vector is 2

R

υwhere υ is

the velocity of the particle d) Magnitude of the velocity of the particle is 8 metre/second

36. Out of the following pairs, which one does not have identical dimensions ? a) Work and torque b) Moment of inertia and moment of a force c) Impulse and momentum d) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant

37. The equation of state of some gases can be expressed

as 2

aP (V b) RT

V+ − =

, where the symbols have

their usual meanings. The dimensions of ‘a’ are a) ML-1T-2 b) ML5T-2 c) L6 d) ML6T-2

38. If the density of water is 1g cm-3 in CGS system, its value in MKS system is a) 1 kg m-3 b) 103 kg m-3

c) 10-3 kg m-3 d) 10-6 kg m-3

39. If the edge of a cube is a = 1.2 × 10-2 m, then its volume will be recorded as a) 1.728 × 10-6 m3 b) 1.73 × 10-6 m3 c) 1.7 × 10-6 m3 d) 1.8 × 10-6 m3

40. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The unit of the constant of proportionality is a) kg m s b) kg m s-1

c) kg s-1 d) kg s 41. The speed of a boat is 5 km/h in still water. It crosses

a river of width 1.0 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river is (in km/h) a) 1 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3

42. Two cars A and B travel along the same road in the same direction from the same starting place. Car A maintains a speed of 50 km/h and car B 60 km/h, but B starts one hour later. How many hours will it take for B to overtake A?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 43. A car accelerates from rest for first 10 s and covers a

distance x. It covers a distance y in next 10 s at the same acceleration. Which of the following is true? a) x = 3y b) y = 3x c) x = y d) y = 2x

44. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 m/s. Then, the time after which its inclimation with the horizontal is 45°, is a) 155 b) 10.98s c) 5.49 d) 2.745s

45. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with the same speed at angles of projection 60° and 30°, respectively. Which one of the following is true? a) Their maximum height will be same b) Their range will be same c) Their landing velocity will be same d) Their time of flight will be same

46. Which of the following enhances the leathering property of soap? a) Sodium carbonate b) Sodium rosinate c) Sodium steal ate d) Trisodium phosphate

47. Interferon is a) the commercial name given to a tonic containing iron b) an alloy of iron and chromium used in space vessels c) a protein derived from the body against viruses d) a trade name of a potend insecticide

48. The turbidity of a polymer solution measures a a) Light absorbed by the solution b) Light transmitted by the solution c) Light scattered by the solution d) Polymer solution cannot absorb light

49. Which of the following is a polymer? a) carnauba wax b) carbowax c) Bees wax d) Paraffin wax

50. Sucrose on treatment with con.HCl produce a) glucose b) fructose c) glucose and fructose d) Laevunilic acid

51. Which of the following set of molecules contain the same number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom. a) SO2, ClF3, BrF3 b) SF4, NH3, O3 c) ClF3, XeF2, H2O d) H2O, SF4, NH3

52. Aspirin is used to cure alzheimer’s disease which is caused by a) Al3+ b) Mg2+ c) Fe3+ d) Zn2+

53. In which of the following properties did Be shows similarities with Al A) Both are comparatively stable in air B) They have no tendency to form peroxide and superoxide C) Both provide colour to Bunsen flame D) Both form coloured solution in liq. NH3 E) The oxides and hydroxides of both elements are amphoteric a) A,B,C,D b) A,B,C c) A,B,E d) A,D,C

54. Which one of the following exhibits the maximum covalent character a) FeCl2 b) AlCl3 c) MgCl3 d) SnCl2

55. If the shortest wavelength of H – atom in Lyman series is x, then the longest wavelength in Balmer series of He+ is

a) 9

5

x b)

36

5

x

c)

4

x d)

5

9

x

56. The metal with highest IE is due to a) Lanthanoid contraction b) Smallest size c) large no of electrons d) noble metal

57. When imidazole ring of histidine is protonated, nitrogen that is protonated is a) secondary amine – nitrogen in the ring – and nitrogen outside the ring b) tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring and nitrogen outside the ring c) Tertiary amine nitrogen in the ring d) secondary amine nitrogen in the ring

58. The hybridisation scheme for the central atom includes a d – orbital contribution is a) I3

- b) PCl3 c) NO3

- d) H2Se 59. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) Pneumoconiosis is caused by inhalation of silica dust b) Lung cancer is caused by textiles c) NO2 and CH4 acts as a sink for chlorine free radicals d) Algae is a viable particulate

60. Gutta percha has a) All cis – configuration b) alternate cis and trans configuration c) random cis and trans configuration d) All trans – configuration

61. Salol is a) acetyl salicylic acid b) phenyl salicylate c) methyl salicylate d) ethyl salicylate

62. The velocity of an electron in second shell of hydrogen atom is a) 10.91 ×106 ms-1 b) 18.88 ×106 ms-1 c) 1.888 ×106 ms-1 d) 1.091 ×106 ms-1

63. The effective nuclear charge on tenth d –e- of Zn with atomic number 30 is a) 21.15 b) 8.85 c) 4.35 d) 3.90

64. What is the orbital angular momentum of an electron in f- orbital

a) 1.5 h

π b)

6h

π

c) 3h

π d)

3h

π

65. An electron, practically at rest, is initially accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volts. It then has a De Broglie wave length λ 1Å. It then get retarded through 19 volts and then has a wavelength λ 2Å. Further retarding through 32 volts changes the

wavelength to λ 3, what is 3 2

1

λ − λλ

?

a) 20

41 b)

10

63 c)

20

63 d)

20

41

66. Natural rubber is not used in making foot wear for polar regions because a) Natural rubber becomes soft at temperature lower than 10oC b) natural rubber becomes brittle at temperature lower than 10oC c) Natural rubber has maximum water absorption capacity at temperature lower than 10oC d) Natural rubber melts at temperature lower than 10oC

67. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible? a) n=3 ℓ = 3 mℓ = -3 ms = + ½ b) n=2 ℓ = 1 mℓ = 2 ms = - ½ c) n=2 ℓ = 0 mℓ =0 ms = + ½ d) n=1 ℓ = 0 mℓ =0 ms = 0

68. The two monomers used in the preparation of dextron are a) 3- hydroxyl butanoic acid and 3 – hydroxypentanoic acid b) ∈- aminocaproic acid and glycine c) isobutylene and isoprene d) lactic acid and glycolic acid

69. Which of the following is correct order for melting point? a) H2O > NH3 > HF > CH4 b) NH3 > H2O > HF > CH4 c) HF > NH3 > H2O > CH4 d) HF > H2O > NH3 > CH4

70. The most stable compound is a) LiF b) LiCl c) LiBr d) LiI

71. Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause a) methemoglobinemia b) kidney damage c) Liver damage d) Laxative effect

72. Which of the following reactions establishes difference between glucose and fructose? a) Tollen’s reagent reaction b) Fehling test c) Phenyl hydrazine test d) Con. HNO3

73. A newer family of very effective lactains antibiotics is a) ampicillin b) amoxicillin c) cephalosporin’s d) Phenobarbital

74. Which of the following is a trisaccharide a) cellobiose b) stachyrose c) Raffinose d) Lychnose

75. An element ‘X’ has successive ionisation enthalpies 940, 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030,7870, 160000 and 19500 kJ mol-1 respectively . The group and formula of chloride of X is a) 14, XCl4 b) 15, XCl5 c) 16, XCl2 d) 17, XCl

76. Hamiltonian operator H is the sum of two energy operators. These are, a) mechanical and potential b) kinetic and mechanical c) thermal and mechanical d) kinetic and potential

77. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of frequency ? a) Cosmic rays < X –rays < amber light b) X – rays< amber light < Cosmic rays c) amber light < cosmic rays < X –rays d) amber light < X – rays < cosmic rays

78. The value of electronegativity of atom A and B are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A – B bond is a) 50 b) 72.24 c) 55.3 d) 43

79. Adenosine is an example of a) Nucleotide b) purine base c) pyrimidine base d) nucleoside

80. Select the correct statements a)P – chlorometaxylenol and dichloro metaxylenol are antibacterial and deodorants b) BHT and BHA are food antioxidants c) SO2 and SO3

2- are antioxidants for wine and beers d) All of the above are correct

81. Which one of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog a) Ozone b)Acrolein c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate d) Chloro fluoro carbons

82. The configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p5, 3s1 shows

a) excited state of O2−

b) excited state of Ne atom c) excited state of F atom d) ground state of F atom

83. The correct order of the O – O bond length in O2, H2O2, O3 is a) O2 > O3 > H2O2 b) O3 > H2O2 > O2 c) O2 > H2O2 > O3 d) H2O2 > O3 > O2

84. Natural and synthetic homo polymers are respectively a) Nylon -6, Nylon -6, 6 b) Natural rubber, Buna – S c) Nylon -6, Neoprene d) Natural rubber, Neoprene

85. The compound not acting as a reducing agent is a) SO2 b) ScO2 c) TeO2 d) All of these

86. The correct order of van der waal’s radius is a) Na > Cl >Ne b) Na < Cl > Ne c) Na < Cl < Ne d) Na< Cl = Ne

87. In the formation of NO+ from NO, the electron will be removed from a) π orbital b) π* orbital c) σ orbital d) σ* orbital

88. Which of the following is paramagnetic? a) CO b) O2

- c) CN- d) NO+ 89. Overdosing on vitamins A and D is more likely than

overdosing on vitamin C because a) vitamin A and D are fat soluble and thus can accumulate in body fat, whereas vitamin C is water soluble and the excess will be excreated in urine b) Vitamin C is fat soluble and thus, can accumulate in body fat, where vitamins A and D are water soluble and the excess will be excreted in urine c) Vitamin C is biologically active as consumed in foods, but vitamins A and D must be converted into biologically active forms before utilisation d) vitamins A and D are biologically active as consumed in food, but vitamin C must be converted into biologically active forms before utilisation

90. Acrylonitrile can be synthesised via

a) CH2 = CH – CH3 + NO 1000 ,→K Ag

b) CH2 = CH – CH3 +NH3 +O2 700

,3→K

FeO atom

c) CH2 = CH2 2→O

Ag→HCN

3

500→KMgCO

d) All of these 91. Find correct statement

a) Selaginalla comes under lycopsida b) Lycopodium is pteridophyte c) Equisetum contains strobilus d) All of these

92. Polytrichum is a a) Pteriodphyte b) Moss c) Red algae d) Fungi

93. Find the incorrect statement a) Artificial systems gave equal weightage to sexual and vegetative characters b) Natural classification systems were based on natural affinities among organisms c) Chemotaxonomy uses chemical constituents of plants to resolve confusions in classification d) None of these

94. Choose the incorrect statement regarding bryophytes a) Plant body is Thallus like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids b) Main plant body is haploid c) Sex organs are either unicellular or multicellular d) Antheridium produce biflagellated antherozoids and archegonium produces a single egg

95. The adults are radially symmetrical but larvae exhibt bilateral symmetry in a) Mollusca b) Hemichordata c) Echinodermata d) Cephalochordata

96. Euspongia belongs to a group of animals which are best described as a) Unicellular or acellular b)Multicellular with cellular level of organization c) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system d)Unicellular having tissue grade of organization, but no body cavity

97. Ctenoplana shows a) Hooks & suckers c) Bioluminescence

98. Which of the following is not true about phylum annelida a) They possess longitudinal and circular musclesb) Closed circulatory systemc) Aquatic annelids possess lateral appendagesd) All are true

99. Choose the statement true about arthropodaa) This is the largest phylum of Animalia includes insects b) The body is covered by chitinous exoskeltonc) The body consist of head, thorax and abdod) All of these

100. Body is supported by spicules, hermaphrodite & digestion is intracellular characteristics of which phylum a) Cnidaria c) Porifera

101. Which of the following is also known as Exocoetus?a) Cuttle fish c) Jelly fish

102. The only phyla in which pseudocoelomate condition is seeing a) Porifera b) Platyhelminathasc) Aschelminthes d) Arthropoda

103. Find out the statement (s) which are incorrecta) In pila visceral hump is seenb) Molluscans are bilaterally symmetrical c)Water vascular system helps in respiration in echinodermates d) None of these

104. Ascidia salpa lancelet included undera) Urochordata c) Protochordata

105. Select the correct match A) S phase - DNA replicationB) Zygotene - SynapsisC) Diplotene - Crossing overD) G1 phase - Quiescent stagea) A & B c) C & A

106. Blind sac body plan is shown by a) Roundworms c) Coelenterates

107. Which one of the following does not have larvae in its life cycle a) Prawn c) Crab

108. Parenchymula is the larva of a) Hydra c) Pheretima

109. Placoid scales are found in a) Cartilagionous fishes/sharks/chondrichthyesb) Bony fishes/osteichthyesc) Lung fishes d) All the above

110. Four pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum is seen in --- a) Petromyzon c) Hippocampus

b) Hypostome d) Muscular pharynx

Which of the following is not true about phylum

a) They possess longitudinal and circular muscles b) Closed circulatory system c) Aquatic annelids possess lateral appendages

the statement true about arthropoda a) This is the largest phylum of Animalia includes

b) The body is covered by chitinous exoskelton c) The body consist of head, thorax and abdomen

Body is supported by spicules, hermaphrodite & digestion is intracellular characteristics of which

b) Ctenophora d) Platyhemithes

Which of the following is also known as Exocoetus? b) Devil fish d) Flying fish

The only phyla in which pseudocoelomate condition

b) Platyhelminathas d) Arthropoda

Find out the statement (s) which are incorrect a) In pila visceral hump is seen

Molluscans are bilaterally symmetrical c)Water vascular system helps in respiration in

Ascidia salpa lancelet included under b) Branchiostoma d) Cephalo chordate

DNA replication Synapsis Crossing over

Quiescent stage b) C & D d) A, C & D

Blind sac body plan is shown by b) Annelids d) Arthropods

Which one of the following does not have larvae in

b) Earthworm d) Cockroach

Parenchymula is the larva of b) Ascaris d) Leucosolenia

ilagionous fishes/sharks/chondrichthyes

b) Bony fishes/osteichthyes

Four pairs of gills which are covered by an

b) Aedes d) Dogfish

111. Angiosperms showa) Haplontic life cyclec) Haplo diplontic life cycle

112. Adiantum belongs to the classa) Psilopsidac) Sphenopsida

113. Areolar connective tissue joins a) Bone with bone b) Fat body with muscles c) Integument with muscles d) None of these

114. Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct ?i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials ii) In almost all animal provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells iii) Tight functions prevent substances from leaking across a tissue iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together v) Gbetween cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules a) (ii) and (iii) c) (iv) and (v)

115. Read the following statemand B in cockroach. a ring of 6 called midgut while at the junction of midgut and hindgut a ring of 100 (B) is presentThe one c

a) b) c)

d) 116. Which of the following figures shows the mandibles

of cockroach ?

117. Which of the following is a transparent tissue ?

a) Tendon c) Hyaline cartilage

118. Cytoplasm of one cell is connected with other through a) Plasmalemma c) Plastoquinones d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Angiosperms show Haplontic life cycle b) Diplontic life cycle

c) Haplo diplontic life cycle d) No life cycle Adiantum belongs to the class a) Psilopsida b) Lycopsida c) Sphenopsida d) Pteropsida Areolar connective tissue joins a) Bone with bone b) Fat body with muscles c) Integument with muscles d) None of these Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct ? i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials ii) In almost all animal tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells iii) Tight functions prevent substances from leaking across a tissue iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules a) (ii) and (iii) b) (i), (ii) and (iii) c) (iv) and (v) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) Read the following statement having two blanks A and B in cockroach. a ring of 6 – 8 blind tubules called (A) is present at the junction of foregut and midgut while at the junction of midgut and hindgut a ring of 100 – 150 yellow coloured thin filamentius

is present The one correct option that fills the two blanks is

A B Malpighian tubules Hepatic ceacae Fat bodies Vasa efferebtia Hepatic caecae Malpighian

tubules Vas deferens Fat bodies

Which of the following figures shows the mandibles of cockroach ?

Which of the following is a transparent tissue ? a) Tendon b) Fibrous cartilage c) Hyaline cartilage d) All of these Cytoplasm of one cell is connected with other through a) Plasmalemma b) Plasmodesmata c) Plastoquinones d) Endoplasmic reticulum

b) Diplontic life cycle

Which of the following statements about cell

i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together

tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between

iii) Tight functions prevent substances from leaking

iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep

ap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules

d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) ent having two blanks A

8 blind tubules is present at the junction of foregut and

midgut while at the junction of midgut and hindgut a 150 yellow coloured thin filamentius

orrect option that fills the two blanks is

Hepatic ceacae Vasa efferebtia Malpighian

Which of the following figures shows the mandibles

b) Fibrous cartilage

Cytoplasm of one cell is connected with other

119. Plant cell differ from animal cell because of a) The presence of cell wall and absence of chlorophyll in plant cells b) Presence of cell wall & chlorophyll in plant cell c) The absence of cell wall & presence of chloroplast in animal cell d) Absence of cell wall & presence of chlorophyll in plant cell

120. Thylakoids are constituents of a) Chloroplast b) Mitochondria c) ER d) Ribosomes

121. Mitochondria perform all of the following functions except a) Nuclear acid synthesis b) β-oxidation of fatty acids c) ATP synthesis d) Polysaccharide degradation

122. Mitochondria are related to a) Prokaryotes b) Plasmids c) Plastids d) Viruses

123. Folding of inner membrane of mitochondria are called a) Cristae b) Grana c) Calcium oxalate crystals d) Sacs

124. Who proposed the ‘cell theory’ a) Schleiden and Schwann b) Watson and crick c) Mendel and Morgan d) Robert Hooke

125. Which of the following is the exception of cell theory a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Lichen d) Virus

126. Which of the following is seen only in prokaryotic cell a) Dictyosome b) Ribosome c) Mesosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum

127. The smallest living cells a) Viroids b) Algae c) Bacteria d) Mycoplasma

128. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotic a) DNA b) RNA c) Plasma membrane d) Mitochondria

129. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched a) Cristae The “shelves” formed by

the folding of the inner Membrane of the mitochondrium

b) Plasmodesmata The membrane surrounding the vacuole in plants

c) Grana Membrane bound disc in chloroplast that contain chlorophyll and carotenoids

d) Middle lamella Layer between adjacent cell walls in plants derived from cell plate.

130. The word “prokaryote” means a cell a) With many nuclei b) With one nucleus c) With diffused nucleus

d) Without chloroplast 131. Which of the following is not a cell organelle

a) Mitochondria b) Ribosome c) Golgi complex d) Microsome

132. The main difference between plant and animal cell is a) Animal cells lack cell wall b) Plant cell has no cell wall c) Animal cell has a rigid cell wall d) Plant cell lack cell membrane

133. Middle lamella is made up of a) Cellulose b) Suberin c) Calcium and Magnesium pectate d) Lignin

134. Plasma membrane consists of a) Protein’s embedded in carbohydrate bilayer b) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer c) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer d) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

135. The amount of which of the element is greatest in protoplasm a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Carbon

136. Autonomic genome system is present in a) Ribosomes and chloroplast b) Mitochondria and ribosomes c) Mitochondria and chloroplast d) Golgi bodies and mitochondria

137. Which of the following is correct pair a) DNA synthesis ---- Ribosomes b) Protein synthesis --- Smooth ER c) Aerobic respiration – Cristae d) Suicidal bags --- Dictyosomes

138. Read the following statements and select the correct ones i) In simple cuboidal epithelium, nuclei are rounded and lie in the centre of the cells ii) Non – keratinized epithelium is impermeable to water iii) Yellow elastic fibrocartilage makes cartilage flexible iv) Areolar tissue forms a shock absorbing cushion around the eye balls and kidneys a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (ii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)

139. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column II A Hyaline

cartilage i Pectoral girdle of frog

B Fibrous cartilage

ii Long bones, sternum, ribs

C Elastic cartilage

iii Public symphysis

D Calcified cartilage

iv Eustachian tube, epiglottis

a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) c) A –(ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i) d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

140. Consider the following statements (i) with one or two blanks i) Bones have a hard and nonsubstance rich in (1) and strength ii) Some of the columnar or cuboidalspecialized for secretion and are called iii) (4), functions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue Which one of the following options, gives thfill ups for the respective blanks from (1) to (4) in the statements ? a) (3) – glandular, (4) – Tight b) (1)- calcium salts, (2) compound, (4) – Excretory c) (3) – glandular, (4) – Adhering d) (1) – magnesium salts, compound

141. Given figures (I and II) show two specialized connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the parts labeled as A and B

I II a) Carti

lage Bone Collagen

fibres b) Carti

lage Bone Collagen

fibres c) Bone Carti

lage Microtubu les

d) Bone Carti lage

Collagen fibres

142. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column IIA Simple

columnar i Wall of heart epithelium

B Cardiac muscle

ii Bone joints

C Adipose tissue

iii Inner lining of stomach

D Hyaline cartilage

iv Below the skin in the abdomen, buttocks, thighs and breasts

v Diaphragm a) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D b) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (ii), D c) A –(i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D

143. Cardiac muscle cells differ from striated muscle cells in having a) A centrally located nucleus b) Different myofibrils c) Fewer mitochondria d) No sarcoplasmic reticulum

Consider the following statements (i) – (iii), each

i) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground and (2) which give bone its

ii) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialized for secretion and are called (3) epithelium

, functions help to stop substances from

Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blanks from (1) to (4) in the

Tight calcium salts, (2) – collagen fibres, (3) –

Excretory Adhering

magnesium salts, (2) – elastic fibres, (3) –

Given figures (I and II) show two specialized connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the

A B

Collagen fibres

Chondrocyte

Collagen fibres

Chondroclast

Microtubu Osteoblast

Collagen fibres

Osteoblast

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column II Wall of heart epithelium

Bone joints

Inner lining of stomach

Below the skin in the abdomen, buttocks, thighs and breasts Diaphragm

(ii), D – (iv) (ii), D – (iv)

(iv), D – (v) (iv), D – (ii)

Cardiac muscle cells differ from striated muscle cells

a) A centrally located nucleus

d) No sarcoplasmic reticulum

144. Read the following statements and select the correct option (i) Blood cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen and elastin (ii) Neuroglial cells protect and support the nephrons (iii) Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae (iv) Striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel f(v) Biceps are involuntary and striated a) Statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect b) Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect c) Statements (i) and (iii) are incorrect d) Statements (i), (ii) and (v) are incorrect

145. In the given diagram of a legbeen indicated by alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the parts which they indicate

a

b

c

d

146. The given figure represents posterior region of male cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D

a

b

c

d

Read the following statements and select the correct option

) Blood cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen and elastin (ii) Neuroglial cells protect and support the nephrons (iii) Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae (iv) Striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion (v) Biceps are involuntary and striated a) Statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect b) Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect c) Statements (i) and (iii) are incorrect d) Statements (i), (ii) and (v) are incorrect

In the given diagram of a leg of cockroach, parts have been indicated by alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the parts which they indicate

A B C D

Coxa Tibia Tarsus Femur Trochanter

Coxa Femur Trochan ter

Tarsus Tibia

Coxa Tarsus Femur Tibia Trochanter

Coxa Trochanter

Femur Tibia Tarsus

The given figure represents posterior region of male cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and

A B C D

9th sternum

Anal style 10th tergum

Anal circus

Anal style

Anal circus

10th tergum

9th sternum

9th sternum

Anal circus

10th tergum

Anal style

9th tergum

Anal circus

10th sternum

Anal style

Read the following statements and select the correct

) Blood cells secrete fibres of structural proteins

(ii) Neuroglial cells protect and support the nephrons (iii) Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae (iv) Striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a

of cockroach, parts have been indicated by alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched

E Trochanter Tibia

Trochanter Tarsus

The given figure represents posterior region of male cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and

Anal circus

sternum

Anal style

Anal style

147. Read the given paragraph “It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. It absorbs nitrogenous waste products from haemocoel and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out though the hindgut” Which of the following structures of cockroach is referred here ? a) Trachea b) Hepatic caecum c) Tergum d) Malpighian tubule

148. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding cockroach ? a) Head is oval in shape b) There are 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen) c) Heart is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with setae on either side d) Each eye consists of about 1000 hexagonal ommatidia

149. Read the following statements about cocki) In male cockroach, a characteristic mushroom shaped gland is present in the 6segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland. ii) Cockroach is uricotelic iii) The fat body and uricose glands are glandular in function iv) Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again Which of the above statements are correct ? a) (i), (ii) and (iv) c) (i) and (iv)

150. Read the statements with regard to fstatements is / are correct and incorrect ? i) The medulla oblongata passes out through foramen of Monro and continues into spinal cord ii) Vasa efferentia are 10 from testes iii)Ovaries have no functional conkidneys iv) Frogs are uricotelic a) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct while statement (iv) is incorrect b) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct while statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect d) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct while statement (i) is incorrect

151. Refer to the given figures showing two types of glands

Which of the following statements regarding these glands is not correct

“It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. It absorbs nitrogenous waste products from haemocoel and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out

Which of the following structures of cockroach is

Hepatic caecum d) Malpighian tubule

Which one of the following statements is correct

b) There are 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax

c) Heart is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers

d) Each eye consists of about 1000 hexagonal

Read the following statements about cockroach i) In male cockroach, a characteristic mushroom shaped gland is present in the 6th – 7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory

iii) The fat body and uricose glands are glandular in

iv) Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again Which of the above statements are correct ?

b) (ii) and (iii) d) (ii) and (iv)

Read the statements with regard to frog. Which of the statements is / are correct and incorrect ? i) The medulla oblongata passes out through foramen of Monro and continues into spinal cord ii) Vasa efferentia are 10 – 12 in number that arise

iii)Ovaries have no functional connection with

a) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct while

b) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct while statements

c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct while statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect d) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct while

Refer to the given figures showing two types of

Which of the following statements regarding these

a) These are the multicellular glands which pour their secretions directly through ducts at the site of action b) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are ‘P’ type of glands c) Brunner’s glands of human intenstine and sweat glands of human skin are ‘Qd) In ‘P’ type of glands, secretory portion comprises of flask like structure where in ‘Q’ type of glands, secretory portion is both tubular and flask shaped.

152. ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their arteries preserved due to the presence of a) Yellow elastic connective tissue fibres b) While fibrous connective tissue fibres c) Cartilage d) Valves

153. Which of the following statements is / are not correct regarding connective tissues i) They are most abundant and widely distributed in the bodii) They connect and support other tissues iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose and other loose connective tissuesiv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs v) In all connesecrete fibres of structural proteins like collagen and elastin a) (iv) only c) (i) and (ii)

154. Chlorophyll a and c are predominantly seen ina) Spirogyrac) Polysiphonia

155. Which is true about haplontic life cyclea) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the one celled zygoteb) There are no free living sporophytesc) Chlamydomonas is an exampled) All of these

156. The leaves in pteridophytes a) Protonemac) Microphylls

157. Name the green algae that possess gametes that are non flagellated, but similar in size?a) Chlamydomonasc) Volvox

158. The microscopic angiosperms is a) Ginkgoc) Gelidium

159. Consider the following statementsA) Ovules are not possessed by gymnosperms B) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species C) Roots are generally tap roots in gymnosperms D) Stems are branched in cycaspinus and cedrusa) Only A is incorrectb) All are correct except Dc) All are incorrect except B & Cd) All are incorrect except B

a) These are the multicellular glands which pour their secretions directly through ducts at the site of action b) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are ‘P’ type of glands c) Brunner’s glands of human intenstine and sweat glands of human skin are ‘Q’ type of glands d) In ‘P’ type of glands, secretory portion comprises of flask like structure where in ‘Q’ type of glands, secretory portion is both tubular and flask shaped. ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their arteries preserved due to the presence of a) Yellow elastic connective tissue fibres b) While fibrous connective tissue fibres c) Cartilage d) Valves Which of the following statements is / are not correct regarding connective tissues i) They are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals ii) They connect and support other tissues iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose and other loose connective tissues iv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins like collagen and elastin a) (iv) only b) (v) only c) (i) and (ii) d) (iii) and (v) Chlorophyll a and c are predominantly seen in a) Spirogyra b) Chara

Polysiphonia d) Dictyota Which is true about haplontic life cycle a) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the one celled zygote b) There are no free living sporophytes c) Chlamydomonas is an example d) All of these The leaves in pteridophytes are known as a) Protonema b) Macrophylles c) Microphylls d) Both b & c Name the green algae that possess gametes that are non flagellated, but similar in size? a) Chlamydomonas b) Spirogyra c) Volvox d) Fucus The microscopic angiosperms is a) Ginkgo b) Salvinia c) Gelidium d) Wolfia Consider the following statements A) Ovules are not possessed by gymnosperms B) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species C) Roots are generally tap roots in gymnosperms D) Stems are branched in cycas and unbranched in pinus and cedrus a) Only A is incorrect b) All are correct except D c) All are incorrect except B & C d) All are incorrect except B

a) These are the multicellular glands which pour their secretions directly through ducts at the site of action b) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are ‘P’

c) Brunner’s glands of human intenstine and sweat

d) In ‘P’ type of glands, secretory portion comprises of flask like structure where in ‘Q’ type of glands, secretory portion is both tubular and flask shaped. ‘Mummies’ of Egypt still have their arteries

Which of the following statements is / are not correct

i) They are most abundant and widely distributed in

iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose and other loose connective

iv) They form the internal and external lining of

ctive tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins like collagen and

a) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the

Name the green algae that possess gametes that are

C) Roots are generally tap roots in gymnosperms and unbranched in

160. Find out the mismatched pair a) Wolfia - Double fertilization b) Sellaginella - heterosporous c) Ectocarpous - Green algae d) Adiantum - Pteropsida

161. Roots of pinus seedling are associated with a) Fungus b) Algae c) Bacteria d) Cyanobacteria

162. Which of the following is a Phaeophycean alga? a) Porphyra b) Laminaria c) Gelidium d) Polysiphonia

163. The male or female strobili borne on the same tree in a) Wolffia b) Equisetum c) Pinus d) Cycas

164. Odd one out a) Chara b) Chlamydomonas c) Spirogyra d) Polysiphonia

165. Which is false about mosses A) The Protonema stage is a creeping, green, unbranched stage B) Leafy stage consist of upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves C) Vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation and budding D) Spores are formed after mitosis a) Only A & B b) Only A c) Only D d) Only A & D

166. Which is a diplontic algae a) Ectocarpus b) Fucus c) Kelps d) Spirogyra

167. Two unequal flagella is present in a) Phaeophyceae b) Chlorophyceae c) Rhodophyceae d) Red algae

168. Egg apparatus consist of a) One egg cell b) One egg cell and three synergids c) One egg cell and three antipodals d) One egg cell and two synergids

169. Which one of the following statements about all the four of spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct? a) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic b) Leech is a fresh water form, while all others are marine c) Spongilla has special collar cells called choanocytes which are not found in the remaining three d) All are bilaterally symmetrical animals

170. Which of the following does not possess internal fertilization and indirect development a) Scypha b) Fasciola c) Spongilla d) Ctenoplana

171. Choose the correct combination of generic name and common name of the following lizards.

Generic name Common name i chelone A Garden lizard ii Testudo B Tree lizard iii chameleon C Tortoise iv calotes D Turtle

a) i-C ii-D iii-B iv-A b) i-D ii-C iii-B iv-A c) i-D ii-A iii-C iv-B d) i-A ii-D iii-C iv-B

172. Choose the odd one a) Scoliodon b) Pristis c) Carcharodon d) Myxine

173. “A multicellular animal possessing organ level of organization acoelomate and having bilateral symmetry”. The above statement applicable to the phylum a) Annelida b) Platy helminthes c) Aschelminthes d) Arthropoda

174. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct? a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates b) Molluses are acoelomates c) Insects are pseudocoelomates d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

175. Find the wrong statement? a) Metaphase is characterized by all chromosomes coming to lie at the equator. b) At the onset of anaphase each chromosome arranged at the metaphase plate is split. c) Nucleolus and ER reform during Anaphase d) None of these

176. Synapsis occurs during a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene

177. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated? a) Prophase II b) Prophase I c) Anaphase II d) Telophase I

178. Which one is a parasitic algae a) Vaucheria b) Polysiphonia c) Cephaleuros d) Batrachospermum

179. Pyrenoids are characteristically found in th chloroplast of a) Fungi b) Algae c) Gymnosperm d) Angiosperms

180. Poikilotherms are also known as a) Isotherm b) Ectotherm c) Endotherm d) Heterotherm

NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– VVIIIIII))

VERSION CODE – A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B A A B D B A B C C B C C A C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B C D D A D D B A C B C D A D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

B B B B C C C B B B B D D A D

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

D C C B C D C D B D D C B A D

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

D B D D A D C A B A C B A A B

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

B A D D C A C D D B B A B A A

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105

A D C D D B C D A B C C B D C

106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

A C C B A A C B A A D A D C D

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135

C C D B A C C D A A C D D D B

136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

D C D B D C C A B C D D B B D

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165

A D C C D B D B A A C B C D D

166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

C D C D C A C B C C B B C B D

VERSION CODE – B

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

A A D B A C C B C A B C D A D

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B A C B C D A D B B B C C B B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

B D D A D B B B C C C D B C B

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B C C B D B A C B A A C A A D

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

B D B D C B C D A A A D A C C

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

D D B D D D B D D C A B B A D

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105

D B D C C B C D D C D C D C A

106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

C B D A C B D C D C C C B B A

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135

D C A A D C D D B C D A C C B

136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

C C A B A A D A D D C D B A C

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165

C A A D D D B D C C A B C D D

166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

B A D C D B D B A C B C C B B

01.04.19

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

First No: Version code: A Second No: Version code: B 1. 36

2. 1

3. 2

4. 37

6. 4

7. 5

9. 6

10. 7

11. 8

12. .39

15. 40

17. 12

18. 13

19. 41

20. 14

21. 42

23. 16

25. 16

26. .19

27. 20

28. 21

30. 23

31. 24

32. 25

33. 43

34. 26

35. 27

36. 28

37. 44

38. 29

41. 31

42. 32

44. 34

45. 35

49. 78

% of ionic character = 16 (xA –xB) +3.5(xA – IA) (Hannay – smith equ) = 16(4-1.2)+3.5(4-1.2)2 = 72.24%

57. 65

1

150

100λ = Å

2

150

81λ = Å

3

150

49λ = Å

Form these equs. 3 2

1

20

63

λ − λ=

λ

59. 55 1

λ= RH ×Z2 [

21

1

n-

22

1

n ]

For Lyman series n1 =1, λ is the shortest if n2 =2 .

∴RH = 1

xfor H –atom

For Balmer series, n1 =2 , λ is the longest if n2 =3

2

2 2

max

1 1 1 1(2 )

2 3= − xλ

for He+ ion (Z = 2)

maxλ =9

5x

60. 65

orbital angular momentum = 2

h

π( )+ℓ ℓ

For f – orbital , 3=ℓ

∴orbital angular momentum = 3(3 1)2

+h

π

= 3h

π

66. 62

velocity of an electron = 2.182 ×106 × 1−Zms

n

For H , Z= 1

ν = 2.182 ×106 ×1

2

= 1.094×106 nos-1 69. 63

Slaters rule: 3de, σ = 9×0.35+18×1=21.15 Zeff = 30-21.15= 8.85