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Content Technical
Subject Specific Questions
Mathematics (Quantitative Aptitude)
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Reasoning Ability
1. Analogy - Type1 (Words) (1. - 1 ())
2. Analogy - Type2 (Numbers) (2. - 2 ())
3. Analogy - Type 3 Alphabets (3. - 3 )
4. Odd Man out Type1 (Words) (4. - 1 ())
5. Odd Man Out - Type 2 (Numbers) (5. - 2 ())
6. Odd Man Out - Type 3 (Alphabets) (6. - 3 ())
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English Language 1. Synonyms
2. Antonyms
3. Grammar Errors 4. Fill in the blanks
5. One word Substitution
6. Sentence improvement
7. Parajumbles 8. Cloze Test
9. Reading Comprehension
Hindi Language General Knowledge
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State General Knowledge
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Civil Engineering MCQ
Q1. A thin-walled long cylindrical tank of inside radius r is
subjected simultaneously to
internal gas pressure p and axial compressive force F at its ends.
In order to produce pure shear
state of stress in the wall of the
cylinder,F should be equal to (a) ppr2
(b) 2ppr2
(c) 3ppr2 (d) 4ppr2 Ans: (c) Q2. If a beam of rectangular
cross-section is subjected to a
vertical shear force V, the shear force carried by the upper one-
third of the cross-section is
(a) zero
(b) 7V/ 27 (c) 8V/ 27
(d) V/3 Ans: (b)
Q3. The stiffness coefficient kij indicates
(a) force at i due to a unit
deformation at j (b) deformation at j due to a unit
force at i
(c) deformation at i due to a unit
force j (d) force at j due to a unit
deformation i Ans: (a)
Q4. A metal bar of length 100
mm is inserted between two rigid supports and its temperature is
increased by 10C. If the
coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 106 per C and the
youngs modulus is 2 105 MPa,
the stress in the bar is (a) zero
(b) 12 MPa
(c) 24 MPa
(d) 2400 MPa ANS: (C)
Q5. The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow
circular shaft of outer diameter
20 mm and thickness 2 mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 Nm
will be
(a) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa (b) 100 MPa and 80 MPa
(c) 118 MPa and 160 MPa
(d) 200 MPa and 160 MPa
Ans: (b)
Q6. The shear stress at the
neutral axis in a beam of
triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height 20 mm,
subjected to a shear force of 3 kN
is
(a) 3 MPa (b) 6 MPa
(c) 10 MPa
(d) 20 MPa Ans: (c)
Q7. U1 and U2 are the strain energies stored in a prismatic bar
due to axial tensile forces P1 and
P2, respectively. The strain energy U stored in the same bar
due to combined action of P1 and
P2 will be
(a) U = U1 + U2 (b) U = U1U2
(c) U < U1 + U2
(d) U > U1 + U2 Ans: (d)
Q8. An axially loaded bar is subjected to a normal stress of
173 MPa. The shear stress in the
bar is (a) 75 MPa
(b) 86.5 MPa
(c) 100 MPa
(d) 122.3 MPa Ans: (b)
Q9. The shape of the cross-section, which has the largest
shape factor, is
(a) rectangular (b) I-section
(c) diamond
(d) solid circular Ans: (c)
Q10. A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a
flange to the bottom end. A
weight W is dropped vertically
from a height h (
Q17. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 3
MPa and 3 MPa respectively.
The maximum shear stress at the point is
(a) zero
(b) 3 MPa
(c) 6 MPa (d) 9 MPa Ans: (b) Q18. If a small concrete cube is
submerged deep in still water in
such a way that the pressure exerted on all faces of the cube is
p, then the maximum shear
stress developed inside the cube is
(a) 0
(b) p 2
(c) p (d) 2p Ans: (a) Q19. The ratio of the theoretical
critical buckling load for a
column with fixed ends to that of another column with the same
dimensions and material, but
with pinned ends, is equal to (a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 4.0 Ans: (d)
Q20. The following statements are related to bending of beams:
I. The slope of the bending
moment diagram is equal to the shear force. II. The slope of the
shear force diagram is equal to
the load intensity. III. The slope of the curvature is equal to the
flexural rotation. IV. The second
derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature. The only
FALSE statement is
(a) I
(b) II (c) III
(d) IV Ans: (c)
Q21. The maximum value of
Poissons ratio for an elastic material is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5 (c) 0.75
(d) 1 Ans: (b)
Q22. In a linear elastic
structural element (a) stiffness is directly
proportional to flexibility
(b) stiffness is inversely proportional to flexibility
(c) stiffness is equal to flexibility
(d) stiffness and flexibility are not
related Ans: (b)
Q23. A cantilever beam of tubular cross section consists of
two materials, copper as outer
cylinder and steel as inner cylinder. It is subjected to
temperature rise of 20C and
acopper > asteel. The stress developed in tubes will be
(a) compression in steel and
tension in copper
(b) tension in steel and compression in copper
(c) no stress in both
(d) tension in both materials Ans: (b)
Q24. The magnitude of only shear stress acting at a plane
stress situation is 7.5 N/mm2.
The magnitude of principle stresses will be
(a) +15 N/mm2 and 7.5 N/mm2
(b) +7.5 N/mm2 and 15 N/mm2
(c) +7.5 N/mm2 and 7.5 N/mm2 (d) +10 N/mm2 and 7.5 N/mm2 Ans: (c) Q25. The state of two-
dimensional stresses acting on a
concrete lamina consists of a direct tensile stress, sx = 1.5
N/mm2 and shear stress, t =
1.20 N/mm2, which cause cracking of concrete. Then the
tensile strength of concrete in
N/mm2 is (a) 1.50
(b) 2.08
(c) 2.17
(d) 2.29 ANS: (C)
Q26. A cantilever beam curved in plan and subjected to lateral
loads will develop at any section.
(a) BM and SF (b) BM and twisting moment
(c) Twisting moment and SF
(d) BM, twisting moment and SF Ans: (d)
Q27. Pick the incorrect
statement from the following four statements.
(a) On the plane which carries
maximum normal stress, the shear stress is zero
(b) Principal planes are mutually
orthogonal (c) On the plane which carries
maximum shear stress, the
normal stress is zero
(d) The principal stress axes and principal strain axes coincide for
an isotropic material Ans: (c)
Q28. If the principal stresses in a
2-D case are 10 mPa and 20 mPa respectively, then maximum
shear stress at the point is MPa
(a) 10 mPa (b) 15 mPa
(c) 20 mPa
(d) 30 mPa Ans: (b)
Q29. The maximum bending
stress induced in a steel wire of modulus of elasticity 200 kN/m2
and diameter 1 mm when wound
on a drum of diameter 1 m is approximately equal to
(a) 50 N/mm2
(b) 100 N/mm2 (c) 200 N/mm2
(d) 400 N/mm2 Ans: (c) Q30. For a given SF across a
symmetrical I section, the
intensity of shear stress is maximum at the
(a) extreme fibres
(b) centroid of the section (c) at the junction of the flange
and the web, but on the web
(d) at the junction of the flange and the web, but on the flange Ans: (b) Q31. In a section, shear centre is
a point through which, if the
resultant load passes, the section
will be subjected to any (a) bending
(b) tension
(c) compression (d) torsion Ans: (d) Q32. The components of strain
tensor at a point in the plane
strain case can be obtained by measuring longitudinal strain in
the following directions:
(a) along any two arbitrary
directions
(b) along any three arbitrary
directions (c) along two mutually orthogonal
directions
(d) along any arbitrary direction Ans: (b)
Q33. The symmetry of stress
tensor at a point in the body under equilibrium is obtained
from
(a) conservation of mass (b) force equilibrium equations
(c) moment equilibrium
equations (d) conservation of energy Ans: (c) Q34. If a beam of rectangular
cross section is subjected to a
vertical shear force V, the shear
force carried by the upper one-third of the cross section is
(a) 0
(b) 7V/27 (c) 8V/27
(d) V/3 Ans: (c)
Q35. A cantilever beam of span L
is subjected to a downward load of 800 kN uniformly distributed
over its length and a
concentrated upward load P at
its free end. For vertical displacement to be zero at the
free end, the value of P is
(a) 300 kN (b) 500 kN
(c) 800 kN
(d) 1000 kN Ans: (a)
Q36. A kern area of a solid circular section column of
diameter D is a concentric circle
of diameter d equal to (a) D 8
(b) D 6
(c) D 4
(d) D 2 Ans: (a)
Q37. The axial load carrying capacity of a long column of
given material of cross sectional
area A and length l is governed by
(a) strength of its material only
(b) its flexural rigidity only (c) its slenderness ratio only
(d) both slenderness ratio and
flexural rigidity Ans: (d)
Q38. The Fixed End Moment
(FEM) of a uniform beam of span l and fixed at its ends subjected
to a central point load P is
(a) Pl 2 (b) Pl 8
(c) P 8
(d) p 16 Ans: (b)
Q39. A beam fixed at the ends
and subjected to lateral loads only is statically indeterminate
and degree of indeterminacy is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4 Ans: (b)
Q40. For linear elastic systems,
the type of displacement function for the strain energy is
(a) linear
(b) quadratic (c) cubic
(d) quartic Ans: (b)
Q41. For a linear elastic
structural system, minimization of potential energy yields
(a) compactibility conditions
(b) constitutive relation
(c) equilibrium equation (d) strain displacement relation Ans: (a) Q42. Ratio of stiffness of a beam
at the near end when the far end
is hinged to the stiffness of the beam at the near end when the
far end is fixed is
(a) 1/2 (b) 3/4
(c) 1
(d) 4/3 Ans: (b)
Q43. The plastic modulus of a
section is 4.8 104 m3. The shape factor is 1.2. The plastic
moment capacity of section is
120 kNm. The yield stress of the material is
(a) 100 mPa
(b) 240 mPa (c) 250 mPa
(d) 300 mPa Ans: (c)
Q44. A three hinged parabolic
arch ABC has a span of 20 m
and a central rise of 4 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and
at the corner. A train of two point
loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart crosses this arch from left
to right, with 20 kN load leading.
The maximum thrust induced at support 5 is
(a) 25 kN
(b) 28.13 kN
(c) 31.25 kN (d) 32.81 kN Ans: (c) Q45. If the characterisitc
strength of concrete fck is defined
as the strength below which not more than 50% of the test results
are expected to fall the
expression for fck in terms of mean strength fm and standard
deviation S would be
(a) fm 0.1645S
(b) fm 1.645S (c) fm
(d) fm + 1.645S Ans: (d)
Q46. A reinforced concrete
structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The minimum
grade of concrete to be used as
per IS: 456-2000 is (a) M 15
(b) M 20
(c) M 25
(d) M 30 Ans: (d)
Q47. In the design of a reinforced concrete beam the requirement
for bond is not getting satisfied.
The economical option to satisfy the requirement for bond is by
(a) bundling of bars
(b) providing smaller diameter bars more in number
(c) providing larger diameter bars
less in number (d) providing same diameter bars
more in number Ans: (b) Q48. Assuming concrete below
the neutral axis to be cracked,
the shear stress across the depth of a singly-reinforce rectangular
beam section
(a) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then drops
suddenly to zero value
(b) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains
constant over the remaining
depth
(c) increases linearly to the
neutral axis and then remains constant up to the tension steel
(d) increases parabolically to the
neutral axis and then remains constant up to the tension steel Ans: (d)
Q49. Consider the following statements: I. Modulus of
elasticity of concrete increases
with increase in compressive strength of concrete. II.
Brittleness of concrete increases
with decrease in compressive strength of concrete. III. Shear
strength of concrete increases
with increase in compressive strength of concrete. The TRUE
statements are
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and III (c) I and II
(d) I and III Ans: (b)
Q50. Un-factored maximum
bending moments at a section of a reinforced concrete beam
resulting from a frame analysis
are 50, 80, 120 and 180 kNm under dead, live, wind and
earthquake loads respectively.
The design moment (kNm) as per
IS: 456-2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is
(a) 195
(b) 250 (c) 345
(d) 372 Ans: (b)
Q51. A pre-tensioned concrete
member of section 200 mm 250 mm contains tendons of area 500
mm2 at the centre of gravity of
the section. The pre-stress in tendons is 1000 N/mm2.
Assuming modular ratio as 10,
the stress (N/mm2) in concrete is
(a) 11 (b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 5 Ans: (d)
Q52. In the theory of plastic bending of beams, the ratio of
plastic moment to yield moment
is called (a) shape factor
(b) plastic section modulus
(c) modulus of resilience
(d) rigidity modulus Ans: (d)
Q53. For limit state of collapse, the partial safety factors
recommended by IS 456: 2000
for estimating the design strength of concrete and
reinforcing steel are respectively
(a) 1.15 and 1.5
(b) 1.0 and 1.0 (c) 1.5 and 1.15
(d) 1.5 and 1.0 Ans: (c)
Q54. Column I gives a list of test
methods for evaluating properties of concrete and Column II gives
the list of properties: Column I
Column II P. Resonant frequency 1. Tensile strength test Q.
Rebound hammer test
2. Dynamic modulus of elasticity
R. Split cylinder test 3. Workability S. Compacting
factor test
4. Compressive strength The correct match of the test with the
property is
(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 ANS: (C)
Q55. As per India standard code
of practice for pre-stressed concrete (IS: 1343-1980) the
minimum grades of concrete to
be used for post-tensioned and pre-tensioned structural
elements are respectively
(a) M20 for both (b) M40 and M30
(c) M15 and M20
(d) M30 and M40 Ans: (a)
Q56. Which one of the following is categorised as a long-term loss
of pre-stress in a pre-stressed
concrete member?
(a) Loss due to elastic shortening (b) Loss due to friction
(c) Loss due to relaxation of
strands (d) Loss due to anchorage slip Ans: (d) Q57. The loads carried (using the
elastic theory) by the longitudinal
steel and the net area of concrete, are Ps and Pc
respectively. The ration s c P P
expressed as per cent is
(a) 0.1
(b) 1 (c) 1.1
(d) 10 Ans: (d)
Q58. Modulus of elasticity of
concrete mix M25 is
(a) 25000 N/mm2 (b) 28500 N/mm2
(c) 15000 N/mm2
(d) 5100 N/mm2 Ans: (a)
Q59. The minimum area of tension reinforcement in a beam
shall be greater than
(a) 0.85 bd /fy (b) 0.87 fy /bd
(c) 0.04 bd
(d) 0.4 bd/ y Ans: (a)
Q60. The permissible bending
stress in concrete for the vertical wall of an R.C. water tank made
of M25 concrete is
(a) 8.5 N/mm2 (b) 6 N/mm2
(c) 2.5 N/mm2
(d) 1.8 N/mm2 Ans: (c)
Q61. Maximum strain in extreme
fibre of concrete and in tension reinforcement (Fe415 and E5 =
200 kN/mm2) in a balanced
section at limit state of flexure are respectively
(a) 0.0035, 0.0038
(b) 0.002, 0.0018 (c) 0.0035, 0.0041
(d) 0.002, 0.0031 Ans: (a)
Q62. An RC square footing of
side length 2 m and uniform effective depth 200 mm is
provided for 300 mm 300 mm
column. The line of action of the
vertical compressive load passes through the centroid of the
footing as well as of the column.
If the magnitude of the load is 320 kN, the nominal transverse
(one way) shear stress in footing
is (a) 0.26 N/mm2
(b) 0.3 N/mm2
(c) 0.34 N/mm2 (d) 0.75 N/mm2 Ans: (a)
Q63. A prestressed concrete rectangular beam of size 300 mm
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900 mm is prestressed with an
initial prestressing force of 700 kN at an eccentricity of 350 mm
at mid-span. Stress at top due to
prestress alone, in N/mm2 is (a) 3.46 (tension)
(b) 2.59 (compression)
(c) 0
(d) 8.64 (compression) Ans: (a)
Q64. IS 456: 2000 recommends to provide certain minimum steel
in RCC beam
(a) to ensure compressive failure (b) to avoid rupture of steel in
case a flexural failure occurs
(c) to hold the stirrup steel in position
(d) to provide enough ductility to
beam Ans: (d)
Q65. The effective length of a
circular electric pole of length L and constant diameter erected on
ground is
(a) 0.8 L (b) 1.2 L
(c) 1.5 L
(d) 2 L Ans: (d)
Q66. M10 grade of concrete
approximates (a) 1: 3: 6 mix
(b) 1: 1: 2 mix
(c) 1: 2: 4 mix (d) 1: 1.5: 3 mix Ans: (a) Q67. The risk of segregation is
more for
(a) wetter mix (b) larger proportion of maximum
size aggregate
(c) coarser grading (d) all the above. Ans: (d)
Q68. Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade
is
(a) 100 kg/cm2 (b) 150 kg/cm2
(c) 200 kg/cm2
(d) 300 kg/cm2 Ans: (d)
Q69. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less
than
(a) 1/5th of mean dimension
(b) 2/5th of mean dimension (c) 3/5th of mean dimension
(d) 4/5th of mean dimension
Ans: (c)
Q70. The process of proper and
accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for
uniformity of proportion, is
known
(a) grading (b) curing
(c) mixing
(d) batching Ans: (d)
Q71. The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of
compressive strength of three
test specimens, exceeds (a) 5 kg/cm2
(b) 8 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 15kg/cm2 Ans: (d)
Q72. Vicat's apparatus is used for
(a) fineness test
(b) consistency test (c) setting time test
(d) soundness test Ans: (b)
Q73. Workability of concrete is
measured by
(a) Vicat apparatus test (b) Slump test
(c) Minimum void method
(d) Talbot Richard test. Ans: (b)
Q74. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using
(a) low water cement ratio
(b) less cement in the concrete (c) proper concrete mix
(d) all the above. Ans: (d)
Q75. For construction of
structures in sea water, the
cement generally preferred to, is (a) Portland-pozzolana cement
(b) quick setting cement
(c) low heat Portland cement (d) rapid hardening cement Ans: (a) Q76. An aggregate is said to be
flaky, if its least dimension is less
than (a) 2/3 mean dimension
(b) 3/4 mean dimension
(c) 3/5 mean dimension
(d) 5/8 mean dimension Ans: (c)
Q77. Segregation is responsible for
(a) honey-combed concrete
(b) porous layers in concrete (c) surface scaling in concrete
(d) all the above. Ans: (d) Q78. Efflorescence in cement is
caused due to an excess of
(a) alumina (b) iron oxide
(c) silica
(d) alkalis Ans: (d)
Q79. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly
concrete, is known
(a) bleeding
(b) creeping (c) segregation
(d) flooding Ans: (a)
Q80. According to Water-Cement
Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete
(a) depends upon the amount of
water used in the mix (b) does not depend upon the
quality of cement mixed with
aggregates
(c) does not depend upon the quanity of cement mixed with
aggregates
(d) all the above. Ans: (d)
Q81. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is
determined by
(a) tensile strength test (b) slump test
(c) compaction factor test
(d) flexural strength test Ans: (c)
Q82. If fineness modulus of sand
is 2.5, it is graded as (a) very fine sand
(b) fine sand
(c) medium sand (d) coarse sand Ans: (b) Q83. Sand requiring a high
water cement ratio, belongs to
(a) Zone I (b) Zone II
(c) Zone III
(d) Zone IV. Ans: (a)
Q84. The entrained air in
concrete (a) increases workability
(b) decreases workability
(c) decreases resistance to weathering
(d) increases strength Ans: (a) Q85. If P, Y and Z are the
weights of cement, fine
aggregates and coarse aggregates respetively and W/C is the water
cement ratio, the minimum
quantity of water to be added to first batch, is obtained by the
equation
(a) 0.1P + 0.3Y + 0.1Z = W/C x P (b) 0.3P + 0.1Y + 0.01Z = W/C x
P
(c) 0.4P + 0.2Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P
(d) 0.5P + 0.3Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P Ans: (b) Q86. The concrete mix which
causes difficulty in obtaining a
smooth finish, possess (a) segregation
(b) internal friction
(c) hardness (d) bleeding ANS: (C)
Q87. A steel column, pinned at both ends, has a buckling load of
200 kN. If the column is
restrained against lateral movement at its mid-height, its
buckling load will be
(a) 200 kN (b) 283 kN
(c) 400 kN
(d) 800 kN Ans: (d)
Q88. A mild steel specimen is under uni-axial tensile stress.
Youngs modulus and yield stress
for mild steel are 2 105 MPa
respectively. The maximum amount of strain energy per unit
volume that can be stored in this
specimen without permanent set is
(a) 156 Nmm/mm3
(b) 15.6 Nmm/mm3 (c) 1.56 Nmm/mm3
(d) 0.156 Nmm/mm3 Ans: (d)
Q89. A 16 mm thick plate
measuring 650 mm 420 mm is
used as a base plate for an ISHB 300 column subjected to a
factored axial compressive load of
2000 kN. As per IS: 456-2000, the minimum grade of concrete
that should be used below the
base plate for safely carrying the load is
(a) M15
(b) M20
(c) M30 (d) M40 Ans: (b) Q90. The cross-section of a
thermo-mechanically treated
(TMT) reinforcing bar has (a) soft ferrite-pearlite throughout
(b) hard martensite throughout
(c) a soft ferrite-pearlite core with a hard martensitic rim
(d) a hard martensitic core with a
soft pearlite-bainitic rim Ans: (c)
Q91. In a steel plate with bolted
connections, the rupture of the net section is a mode of failure
under
(a) tension (b) compression
(c) flexure
(d) shear Ans: (a)
Q92. Rivet value is defined as
(a) lesser of the bearing strength of rivet and the shearing strength
of the rivet
(b) lesser of the bearing strength of rivet and the tearing strength
of the thinner plate
(c) greater of the bearing strength of rivet and the shearing strength
of the rivet
(d) lesser of the shearing strength of rivet and the tearing strength
of the thinner plate Ans: (a)
Q93. Two equal angles ISA 100
mm 100 mm of thickness 10
mm are placed back to back and connected to either side of the
gusset plate through a single row
of 16 mm diameter rivet in double shear. The effective areas
of the connected and
unconnected legs of each of the angles is 775 mm2 and 950 mm2
respectively. If the angles are
NOT back riveted, the net effective area of the pair of angle
is
(a) 3650 mm2
(b) 3450 mm2 (c) 3076 mm2
(d) 2899 mm2
Ans: (d)
Q94. An ISMB 500 is used as a
beam in a multi-storey construction. From the viewpoint
of structural design, it can be
considered to be laterally
restrained when (a) the tension flange is laterally
restrained
(b) the compression flange is laterally restrained
(c) the web is adequately stiffened
(d) the conditions in Ans: (b)
Q95. In the design of lacing system for a built up steel
column, the maximum allowable
slenderness ratio in lacing bar is
(a) 120 (b) 145
(c) 180
(d) 250 Ans: (b)
Q96. A square steel slab of area 1 m2 is provided for a column
made of two channel sections.
The 300 mm 300 mm column carries an axial compression load
of 2000 kN. The line of action of
load passes through the centroid
of the column section as well as the slab base. The permissible
bending stress in slab base is
185 mPa. The required minimum thickness of slab base is
(a) 1100 mm
(b) 89 mm (c) 63 mm
(d) 55 mm Ans: (d)
Q97. A strut in a steel truss is
composed of two equal angles ISA 150 mm 150 mm of
thickness 100 mm connected
back to back to the same side of
gusset plate. The cross sectional area of each angle is 2921 mm2
and moment of inertia (IXX = IYY)
is 6335000 mm4. The distance of the centroid of the angle from its
surface (CX = CY) is 40.8 mm.
The minimum radius of gyration of strut is
(a) 93.2 mm
(b) 62.7 mm (c) 46.6 mm
(d) 29.8 mm ANS: (C)
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Q98. Allowable average shear stress in an unstiffened web for
beams made of steel of grade 250
N/mm2 is _____Nmm2 (a) 250 N/mm2
(b) 165 N/mm2
(c) 150 N/mm2
(d) 100 N/mm2 Ans: (d)
Q99. According to IS: 800 - 71, the minimum thickness of a
vertically stiffened web plate,
shall not be less than (a) 85 /d
(b) 200/ d
(c) 225/ d (d) 250/ d Ans: (d)
Q100. Slenderness ratio of a compression member is
(a) Moments of inertia Radius of
gyration (b) Effective length Area of cross-
section
(c) Radius of gyration Effective length
(d) Radius of gyration Area of
cross-section ANS: (C)
Q101. The most economical
section for a column, is (a) Rectangular
(b) solid round
(c) flat strip (d) tubular section Ans: (d) Q102. When a tension member
is made of four angles with a
plate as a web, the allowance for holes is made as
(a) two holes for each angle and
one hole for the web (b) one hole for each angle and
one hole for the web
(c) one hole for each angle and
two holes for the web (d) two holes for each angle and
two holes for the web Ans: (c)
Q103. The failure of a web plate
takes place by yielding if the ratio of the clear depth to thickness of
the web, is less than
(a) 45 (b) 55
(c) 60
(d) 82 Ans: (d)
Q104. The maximum permissible
slenderness ratio of a member carrying loads resulting from
wind, is
(a) 180 (b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 300 Ans: (c)
Q105. If d is the distance
between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders
are spaced not greater than
(a) d (b) 1.25 d
(c) 1.5 d
(d) 1.75 d ANS: (C)
Q106. For a rectangular section,
the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses, is
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.0 (c) 2.5
(d) 3.0 Ans: (a)
Q107. The thickness t of a single
flat lacing should not be less than
(a) 1/30 th length between inner
end rivets
(b) 1/40 th length between inner end rivets
(c) 1/50 th length between inner
end rivets (d) 1/60 th length between inner
end rivets Ans: (b)
Q108. The minimum pitch of
rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than
(a) d
(b) 1.25 d (c) 1.5 d
(d) 2.5 d Ans: (d) Q109. Number of rivets required
in a joint, is
(a) load/ shear strength of a rivet (b) load/ bearing strength of a
rivet
(c) load/ tearing strength of a rivet
(d) load/ rivet value Ans: (d)
Q110. If d is the distance
between the flange angles, the
vertical stiffeners in plate girders without horizontal stiffeners, are
spaced at a distance not less
than (a) 0.15 d
(b) 0.22 d
(c) 0.33 d (d) 0.44 d Ans: (c)
Q111. In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is
(a) t < 1/40 th length between
inner end rivets (b) t < 1/50 th length between
inner end rivets
(c) t < 1/60 th length between inner end rivets
(d) t < 1/70 th length between
inner end rivets Ans: (c)
Q112. The distance between the
outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as
(a) overall depth
(b) clear depth (c) effective depth
(d) none of these. Ans: (a)
Q113. Effective sectional area of
a compression member is: (a) gross sectional area - area of
rivet hole
(b) gross sectional areas + area of
rivet hole (c) gross sectional areas area of
rivet hole
(d) gross sectional areas + area of rivet hole. Ans: (a) Q114. Factor of safety is the
ratio of
(a) yield stress to working stress (b) tensile stress to working
stress
(c) compressive stress to working stress
(d) bearing stress to working
stress Ans: (a)
Q115. Deposit with flocculated
structure is formed when (a) Clay particles settle on sea
bed
(b) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
(c) Sand particles settle on river
bed (d) Sand particles settle on sea
bed Ans: (b)
Q116. Sieve analysis on a dry
soil sample of mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g of
soil pass through 4.75 mm and
0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits of
the soil fraction passing through
425P sieves are 40% and 18%
respectively. The soil may be classified as
(a) SC
(b) MI (c) CI
(d) SM Ans: (a)
Q117. Group symbols assigned
to silty sand clayey sand are respectively
(a) SS and CS
(b) SM and CS
(c) SM and SC (d) MS and CS Ans: (c) Q118. The range of void ratio
between which quick sand
conditions occurs in cohesion less granular soil deposits is
(a) 0.4-0.5
(b) 0.6 0.7 (c) 0.8-0.9
(d) 1.0-1.1 Ans: (b) Q119. To provide safety against
piping failure, with a factor of
safety of 5, what should be he maximum permissible exit
gradient for soil with specific
gravity of 2.5 and porosity of 0.35?
(a) 0.155
(b) 0.176 (c) 0.195
(d) 0.213 ANS: (C)
Q120. Quick sand condition
occurs when
(a) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
(b) The upward seepage pressure
in soil becomes zero (c) The upward seepage pressure
in soil becomes equal to the
saturated unit weight of the soil. (d) The upward seepage pressure
in soil becomes equal to the
submerged unit weight of the soil. Ans: (d)
Q121. For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio and the
specific gravity of solids are 0.70
and 2.67, respectively. The critical (upward) hydraulic
gradient for the deposit would we
(a) 0.54 (b) 0.98
(c) 1.02
(d) 1.87 Ans: (b)
Q122. Compaction by vibratory
roller is the best method of compaction is case of
(a) moist silty sand
(b) well graded dry sand (c) clay of medium
compressibility
(d) silt of high compressibility Ans: (b)
Q123. The following statements
were made on a compacted soil, where DS stands for soil
compaction on dry side of OMC,
and WS stands for soil compaction on wet side of OMC.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) Soil structure is floculated on DS and dispersed on WS.
(b) Construction of pore water
pressure is low on DS and high on DS
(c) Soil is drying, shrinkage is
high on DS and low on WS
(d) On addition of water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS. Ans: (d) Q124. Ratio of saturated unit
weight to dry unit weight of soil
is 1.25. If the specific gravity of solids (G) = 2.65, the void ratio of
soil is
(a) 0.625 (b) 0.663
(c) 0.944
(d) 1.325 Ans: (b)
Q125. A soil sample has water
content 20% and wet unit weight 20 kN/m3. The void ratio of soil
is (G = 2.7)
(a) 1.667 (b) 16.67
(c) 1.62
(d) 0.162 Ans: (c)
Q126. A soil sample has natural void ratio of 0.8. The maximum
void ratio is 1.6 and minimum
void ratio is 0.54. Find the
relative density of the sample. (a) 100%
(b) 75.47%
(c) 76.67% (d) 81.47% Ans: (b) Q127. A soil sample has D10 =
0.15, D30 = 0.54 and D60 =
1.45. What is the coefficient of
curvature of the soil? (a) 0.34
(b) 8.45
(c) 9.67 (d) 1.34 Ans: (d) Q128. A soil mass contains 40%
gravel, 50% sand and 10% silt.
The soil can be classified as (a) silty sandy gravel having Cu <
60
(b) silty gravelly sand having Cu
= 10 (c) gravelly silty sand having Cu >
60
(d) gravelly silty sand and its Cu cannot be determined
Ans: (c) Q129. If the moisture content of
fully saturated soil is 100%, then
void ratio is equal to (a) half of specific gravity
(b) twice specific gravity
(c) mass specific gravity
(d) true specific gravity Ans: (d)
Q130. The water content of fully saturated clayey soil depends
upon
(a) OMC (b) WP
(c) WS
(d) void ratio Ans: (d)
Q131. A sheet of water of thickness 1 m is available to fill
the voids of a cohesionless soil to
a degree of saturation 50%. The
soil has void ratio 0.5. The thickness of soil layer required to
accommodate the amount of
water is (a) 3 m
(b) 3.25 m
(c) 3.75 m (d) 4 m Ans: (c) Q132. In a pycnometer
experiment, specific gravity of
sandy soil is reported as 2.2. The
reason for this is (a) presence of iron
(b) addition of defloculating agent
(c) non-addition of defloculating agent
(d) non-elimination of air Ans: (d)
Q133. A borrow pit of soil has
dry density of 17 kN/m3. How
many cubic meters of soil will be required to construct an
embarkment of 100 m3 volume
with dry density of 16 kN/m3. (a) 94 m3
(b) 106 m3
(c) 100 m3 (d) 90 m3 Ans: (a) Q134. The ratio of saturated unit
weight to dry unit weight of soil
is 1.25. If the specific gravity of
solids (Gs) is 2.56, the void ratio of soil is
(a) 0.625
(b) 0.663 (c) 0.944
(d) 1.325 Ans: (b)
Q135. Clay is said to be float
when WC is (a) less than 10%
(b) 10 to 30%
(c) more than 50%
(d) 100% Ans: (c)
Q136. Ans: (b)
Q137. A soil deposit of 3 layers of equal thickness and
permeabilities in the ratio 1: 2: 3.
What is the ratio of average permeability in horizontal to
vertical direction?
(a) 11/9 (b) 9/11
(c) 18/11
(d) 11/18 Ans: (a)
Q138. Specific yield of an
unconfined aquifer is (a) independent of porosity
(b) less than porosity
(c) greater than porosity (d) equal to porosity Ans: (b) Q139. The phreatic line of
homogeneous dam is of which
shape?
(a) Circular (b) Elliptical
(c) Hyperbolic
(d) Parabolic Ans: (d)
Q140. For a fully saturated soil, pore pressure parameter B is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 0.5 Ans: (b) Q141. The specific gravity and
in-situ void ratio of a soil deposit
are 2.71 and 0.85 respectively. The value of critical hydraulic
gradient is
(a) 0.82 (b) 0.85
(c) 0.92
(d) 0.95 Ans: (c)
Q142. The critical gradient of soil
increases with (a) increase in void ratio
(b) decrease in specific gravity
(c) decrease in void ratio (d) none of these Ans: (c) Q143. The time for a clay layer to
achieve 85% consolidation is 10
years. If the layer was half as
thick, 10 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible
then the time that would be
required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
(a) 1 year
(b) 5 years (c) 12 years
(d) 16 years Ans: (a)
Q144. Clay behaves like dense
sand when it is (a) unconsolidated clay
(b) over consolidated clay
(c) over consolidated clay with
low value of over consolidation ratio
(d) over consolidated clay with
high value of over consolidation ratio Ans: (d) Q145. The quantity of seepage of
water through soils is
proportional to (a) coefficient of permeability of
soil
(b) total head loss through the
soil (c) neither
(a) nor
Ans: (d)
Q146. The undrained cohesion of
a remoulded clay is 10 kN/m2. If the sensitivity of the clay is 20,
the corresponding remoulded
compressive strength is
(a) 5 kN/m2 (b) 10 kN/m2
(c) 20 kN/m2
(d) 200 kN/m2 Ans: (c)
Q147. If the effective stress strength parameters of a soil are
c' = 10 kPa and I' = 30, the
shear strength on a plane within the saturated soil mass at a point
where the total normal stress is
300 kPa and pore water pressure
is 150 kPa will be (a) 90.5 kPa
(b) 96.6 kPa
(c) 101.5 kPa (d) 105.5 kPa
Ans: (b) Q148. An unsupported
excavation is made to the
maximum possible depth in a clay soil having J t = 18 kN/m3, c
= 100 kN/m2, I = 30. The active
Earth pressure, according to
Rankines theory, at the base level of the excavation is
(a) 115.47 kN/m2
(b) 54.36 kN/m2 (c) 27.18 kN/m2
(d) 13 kN/m2 Ans: (a)
Q149. A clayey soil has
maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 and optimum moisture
content of 12%. A contractor
during the construction of core of an earth dam obtained the dry
density 15.2 kN/m3 and water
content 11%. The construction is
acceptable because (a) the density is less than the
maximum dry density and water
content is on the dry side of optimum
(b) the compaction density is very
low and water content is less than 12%
(c) compaction is done on dry
side of optimum (d) both the dry density and
water content of the compacted
soil are within the desirable
limits Ans: (d)
Q150. The maximum value of effective stress in the past
divided by the present value is
defined as over consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an
over consolidated clay is
(a) less than 1
(b) 1 (c) more than 1
(d) None of these. Ans: (c)
Q151. Factor of safety against
sliding of a slope, is the ratio of (a) actual cohesion to that
required to maintain stability of
slope (b) shear strength to shear stress
along the surface
(c) neither
(a) nor Ans: (d)
Q152. The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of
(a) volume of water to volume of
given soil (b) volume of water to volume of
voids in soil
(c) weight of water to weight of air in voids
(d) weight of water to weight of
solids of given mass of soil. Ans: (d)
Q153. Stoke's law states that the
velocity at which a grain settles out of suspension, the other
factors remaining constant, is
dependent upon (a) shape of grain
(b) weight of grain
(c) shape and size of grain (d) shape, size and weight of
grain. Ans: (d)
Q154. Back fill with a sloping
surface exerts a total active
pressure Pa on the wall of heightH and acts at
(a) H/4 above the base parallel to
base (b) H/2 above the base parallel to
base
(c) H/3 above the base parallel to base
(d) H/5 above the base parallel to
base. ANS: (C)
Q155. The ratio of the weight of
given volume of soil solids to the weight of an equal volume of
distilled water at the given
temperature, is known (a) Porosity
(b) specific gravity
(c) void ratio (d) water content. ANS: (C)
Q156. The liquidity index is defined as a ratio expressed as
percentage of
(a) plastic limit minus the natural water content, to its
plasticity index
(b) natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity
index
(c) natural water content plus its plastic limit to its plasticity index
(d) liquid limit minus the natural
water content to the plasticity
index. Ans: (b)
Q157. A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific
gravity as 2.75. The critical
gradient at which quick sand condition occurs, is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50 (c) 0.75
(d) 1.00 Ans: (d) Q158. The weight of a
pycnometer containing 400 g
sand and water full to the top is 2150 g. The weight of
pycnometer full of clean water is
1950 g. If specific gravity of the soil is 2.5, the water content is
(a) 5%
(b) 10% (c) 15%
(d) 20% Ans: (d)
Q159. For determining the
moisture content of a soil
sample, the following data is available Weight of container =
260 g, Weight of soil sample and
= 320 g container, Weight of soil sample (dried) and = 310 g
container. The moisture content
of the soil sample, is (a) 15%
(b) 18%
(c) 20% (d) 25% ANS: (C)
Q160. Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density
(a) multiplied by unit weight of
water (b) divided by unit weight of
water
(c) plus unit weight of water (d) minus unit weight of water. Ans: (d)
Q161. A compacted soil sample using 10% moisture content has
a weight of 200 g and mass unit
weight of 2.0 g/cm3. If the specific gravity of soil particles
and water are 2.7 and 1.0, the
degree of saturation of the soil is (a) 11.1%
(b) 55.6%
(c) 69.6% (d) none of these. Ans: (c)
Q162. A partially saturated sample of soil has a unit weight
of 2.0 g/cm3 and specific gravity
of soil particles is 2.6. If the moisture content in the soil is
20%, the degree of saturation is
(a) 20% (b) 77%
(c) 93%
(d) none of these. Ans: (a)
Q163. Degree of saturation of a
natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity
2.50 and void ratio 0.5, is
(a) 50% (b) 60%
(c) 75%
(d) 80% Ans: (c)
Q164. As per the Laceys method for design of alluvial channels,
identify the true statement from
the following. (a) Wetted perimeter increases
with an increase in design
discharge
(b) Hydraulic radius increases with an increase in silt factor
(c) Wetted perimeter decreases
with an increase in design discharge
(d) Wetted perimeter increases
with an increase in silt factor Ans: (a)
Q165. Direct step method of computation for gradually varied
flow is
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(a) applicable to non-prismatic
channels (b) applicable to prismatic
channels
(c) applicable to both prismatic and non-prismatic channels
(d) not applicable to both
prismatic and non-prismatic
channels Ans: (b)
Q166. The flow in a rectangular channel is sub-critical. If width of
the channel is reduced at a
certain section, the water surface under no-choke condition will
(a) drop at a downstream section
(b) rise at a downstream section (c) rise at an downstream section
(d) not undergo any change Ans: (c) Q167. For a given discharge, the
critical flow depth in an open
channel depends on (a) channel geometry only
(b) channel geometry and bed
slope (c) channel geometry, bed slope
and roughness
(d) channel geometry, bed slope, roughness and Reynolds number Ans: (a)
Q168. The flow in a horizontal, frictionless rectangular open
channel is supercritical. A
smooth hump is built on the channel floor. As the height of
hump is increased, choked
condition is attained. With further increase in the height of
the hump, the water surface will
(a) rise at a section upstream of the hump
(b) drop at a section upstream of
the hump (c) drop at the hump
(d) rise at the hump Ans: (a) Q169. Cavitation is caused by
(a) high velocity
(b) low pressure (c) high pressure
(d) high temperature Ans: (b)
Q170. Surface tension is due to
(a) cohesion and adhesion (b) cohesion only
(c) adhesion only
(d) none of the above Ans: (b)
Q171. Continuum approach in
fluid mechanics is valid when (a) the compressibility is very
high
(b) the viscosity is low (c) the mean free path of the
molecule is much smaller
compared to the characteristic
dimension (d) M >> 1, where M is the Mach
number Ans: (c)
Q172. A fluid is one which can
be defined as a substance that (a) has that same shear stress at
all points
(b) can deform indefinitely under the action of the smallest shear
force
(c) has the small shear stress in
all directions (d) is practically incompressible Ans: (b) Q173. Shear stress in the
Newtonian fluid is proportional to
(a) pressure (b) strain
(c) strain rate
(d) the inverse of the viscosity Ans: (c)
Q174. With increase in
temperature, viscosity of fluid (a) does not change
(b) always increases
(c) always decreases (d) increases if fluid is a gas and
decreases if it is a liquid Ans: (d)
Q175. A floating body with its
centre of gravity at G centre if buoyancy at B and metacentre
at m is stable when
(a) G lies above B (b) B lies above M
(c) B lies below M
(d) G lies below M Ans: (d)
Q176. Pitot tube is used to
measure (a) static pressure of a flowing
fluid
(b) dynamic pressure of a flowing fluid
(c) total pressure of a flowing
fluid (d) surface tension pressure of a
flowing fluid Ans: (c)
Q177. Shear stress develops on a
fluid element, if the fluid (a) is at rest
(b) if the container is subjected to
uniform linear acceleration (c) is inviscid
(d) is viscous and the flow is non-
uniform Ans: (d)
Q178. In a static fluid, the
pressure at a point is (a) equal to the weight of the fluid
above
(b) equal in all directions (c) equal in all directions, only if
its viscosity is zero
(d) always directed downwards Ans: (b)
Q179. The centre of pressure of
a liquid on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static
body of liquid, always lies below
the centroid of the surface area, because
(a) in liquids, the pressure acting
is same in all directions (b) there is no shear stress in
liquids at rest
(c) the liquid pressure is constant over depth
(d) the liquid pressure increases
linearly with depth Ans: (d)
Q180. How does viscosity of a
fluid change with increase in temperature?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases (c) Increases for liquid, decreases
for gas
(d) Increases for gas, decreases for liquid Ans: (c) Q181. The ratio of pressures
between two points at depth 1 m
and 2 m below water is
(a) 1: 1 (b) 1: 2
(c) 1: 4
(d) 1: 2 Ans: (b)
Q182. According to Newtons law of viscosity, shear stress is
(a) inversely proportional to
angular deformation (b) directly proportional to
angular deformation
(c) inversely proportional to rate
of angular deformation
(d) directly proportional to rate of
angular deformation Ans: (d)
Q183. If flow condition satisfies Laplace equation, the
(a) flow is rotational
(b) flow does not satisfy
continuous equation (c) flow is irrotational but does
not satisfy continuity equation
(d) flow is irrotational and satisfies continuity equation Ans: (d) Q184. The continuity equation of
fluids is based on the principle of
(a) conservation of mass (b) conservation of velocity
(c) conservation of energy
(d) conservation of momentum Ans: (a)
Q185. An inert tracer is injected
continuously from a point in an unsteady flow field. The locus of
locations of all the tracer
particles at an instance of time represents
(a) stream line
(b) path line (c) stream tube
(d) streak line Ans: (d) Q186. The Pitot-static tube
measures
(a) static pressure (b) dynamic pressure
(c) difference in static and
dynamic pressures (d) difference in total and static
pressures Ans: (d)
Q187. If the velocity distribution
is rectangular, the kinetic energy correction factor is
(a) greater than zero but less
than unity
(b) less than zero (c) equal to zero
(d) equal to unity Ans: (d)
Q188. The range of co-efficient of
discharge of a venturimeter is (a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.62 to 0.73
(c) 0.7 to 0.8 (d) 0.95 to 0.99 Ans: (d)
Q189. Bernoullis equation is an equation of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of linear momentum
(c) conservation of energy
(d) conservation of angular momentum Ans: (c)
Q190. Water flows steadily down in a vertical pipe of constant
cross section. Neglecting friction,
according to Bernoullis equation (a) pressure is constant along the
length of the pipe
(b) velocity decreases with height (c) pressure decreases with
height
(d) pressure increases with height Ans: (d)
Q191. The discharge coefficient, Cd of an orifice metre is
(a) greater than the Cd of a
venturimeter (b) smaller than the Cd of a
venturimeter
(c) equal to the Cd of a venturimeter
(d) greater than one Ans: (b)
Q192. When a steady jet of water
impinges on a stationary inclined
plane surface and if fluid friction is neglected, the resultant force
on the plane
(a) is tangential to the surface (b) is normal to the surface
(c) is in the direction of the jet
flow (d) none of the above Ans: (b) Q193. In a Bernoulli equation,
used in pipe flow, each term
represents (a) energy per unit weight
(b) energy per unit mass
(c) energy per unit volume
(d) energy per unit flow length Ans: (a)
Q194. The friction factor for a turbulent flow in smooth pipes
varies
(a) inversely as Reynolds number (b) directly as Reynolds number
(c) as square of Reynolds number
(d) inversely as 1 th 4 power of Reynolds number Ans: (d)
Q195. The stresses that arise due to fluctuations in the velocity
components in a turbulent flow
are (a) Euler stresses
(b) Limit stresses
(c) Reynolds stresses (d) Principal stresses Ans: (c)
Q196. The prandtl mixing length for turbulent flow through pipes
is
(a) independent of shear stress (b) a universal constant
(c) zero at the pipe wall
(d) independent of radial distance from pipe axis Ans: (a) Q197. In network of pipes
(a) the algebraic sum of discharge
around each circuit is zero
(b) the algebraic sum of (pressure + datum) head drops around
each circuit is zero
(c) the elevation of hydraulic gradient line is assumed for each
junction point
(d) elementary circuits are replaced by equivalent pipes ANS: (C) Q198. The gradient in the
normal direction at the wall of
velocity in a fully developed
turbulent pipe flow is (a) nearly zero
(b) less than the gradient of
velocity in laminar fully developed pipe flow having the
same flow rate
(c) greater than the gradient of the velocity developed pipe flow
having the same flow rate
(d) 1/2 Ans: (a)
Q199. Up to what Reynolds number is Stokes law valid?
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 1 (d) 5 105
ANS: (C) Q200. Flow separation is likely
to occur when pressure gradient
is (a) positive
(b) zero
(c) negative (d) negative and only when equal
to 0.332 Ans: (a)
Q201. Stream line inside a
boundary layer over a flat plate is (a) parallel
(b) diverge
(c) converge (d) normal to flow direction Ans: (b)
Q202. On an immersed body in a flowing fluid the lift force is
(a) due to buoyant force
(b) always in opposite direction of gravity
(c) due to wake phenomenon
(d) dynamic fluid force component normal to approach
velocity Ans: (a)
Q203. Reciprocating pumps are
used for
(a) High discharge and low head (b) Low discharge and low head
(c) High discharge and high head
(d) Low discharge and high head Ans: (d)
Q204. A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of 5 m3 /s, when
operating under a head of 20 m
with a speed of 500 rpm. If it is to operate under a head of 15 m,
for the same discharge, the
rotational speed in rpm will
approximately be (a) 433
(b) 403
(c) 627 (d) 388 Ans: (a) Q205. Both Reynolds and
Froude numbers assume
significance in one of the following examples.
(a) Motion of submarine at large
depths (b) Motion of ship in deep seas
(c) Cruising of a missile in air
(d) Flow over spillways Ans: (b)
Q206. At a rated capacity of 44
cumecs, a centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head when
operating at 1450 rpm. Its
specific speed is (a) 654
(b) 509
(c) 700 (d) 90 Ans: (a)
Q207. A hydraulic turbine develops a power of 104 metric
horse power while running at a
speed of 100 revolutions per minute, under a head of 40 m.
Its specific speed is nearest to
one of the following. (a) 100
(b) 628
(c) 523
(d) 314 Ans: (a)
Q208. It is most appropriate to
say that uniform flow in an open channel occurs when there is
balance between
(a) gravity and frictional force (b) inertial and frictional force
(c) gravity and inertial force
(d) inertial and viscous force Ans: (a)
Q209. For a pipe of radius r
flowing half full, under action of gravity, the hydraulic depth is
(a) r
(b) r 4 S (c) 2r
(d) 0.379 r Ans: (b)
Q210. The downstream end of a
long prismatic channel of mild slope ends in a pool created by a
dam. The resulting non-uniform
water profile can be described as
(a) M1 profile ending in a hydraulic jump
(b) M1 profile that lies above a
normal depth line (c) M2 profile that lies between
critical and normal depth lines
(d) M3 profile that lies between critical and normal depth lines Ans: (b) Q211. A long prismatic channel
ends in an abrupt drop in bed.
Choose one of the following statements that adequately
explains the water surface profile
on the upstream of the drop, for
an initially subcritical flow. (a) Water surface lies between
critical and normal depth lines
(b) Water surface profile starts from critical depth line and joins
the normal depth line
asymptotically (c) Water surface lies wholly
above normal depth line
(d) Water surface lies wholly below critical depth line Ans: (b)
Q212. The hydraulic jump
always occurs from (a) an M2 curve to an M1 curve
(b) an H3 curve to an H1 curve
(c) below normal depth to above normal depth
(d) below critical depth to above
critical depth Ans: (d)
Q213. In deriving the equation
for the hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel in terms of
the conjugate depths and the
initial Froude number (a) continuity equation and
energy equation are used
(b) continuity equation and momentum equation are used
(c) equations of continuity,
momentum and energy are used
(d) gradually varied flow equation is used Ans: (c) Q214. Flow at critical depth
takes place in an open channel
when (a) for a given specific energy,
discharge is maximum
(b) for a given discharge, specific energy is maximum
(c) discharge is minimum for a
given specific force
(d) discharge is maximum for a given specific force Ans: (a) Q215. A discharge of 1 cumec is
flowing in a rectangular channel
one metre wide at a depth of 20 cm. The bed slope of the channel
is
(a) mild (b) critical
(c) steep
(d) adverse ANS: (C)
Q216. In a lined rectangular
canal, the Froude number of incoming flow is 3.0. A hydraulic
jump forms when it meets the
pool of water. The depth of flow after the jump formation is 1.51
m. Froude number of flow after
the hydraulic jump is (a) 0.30
(b) 0.71
(c) 0.41 (d) None of the above ANS: (C)
Q217. The critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel
http://mocktime.com/state-exams-online-test-series
is 1.5 m. The specific energy at
the section is (a) 0.75 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 1.5 m (d) 2.25 m Ans: (d)
Q218. A flood wave with a known inflow hydrograph is routed
through a large reservoir. The
outflow hydrograph will have (a) attenuated peak with reduced
time-base
(b) attenuated peak with increased time-base
(c) increased peak with increased
time-base (d) increased peak with reduced
time-base Ans: (b) Q219. A watershed got
transformed from rural to urban
over a period of time. The effect of urbanization on storm runoff
hydrograph from the watershed
is to (a) decrease the volume of runoff
(b) increase the time to peak
discharge (c) decrease the time base
(d) decrease the peak discharge Ans: (c) Q220. The ratio of actual
evapotranspiration to potential
evapotranspiration is in the range
(a) 0.0 to 0.4
(b) 0.6 to 0.9 (c) 0.0 to 1.0
(d) 1.0 to 2.0 ANS: (C)
Q221. Standard rain guage
adopted in India is (a) Natural siphon type
(b) Symons rain guage
(c) Tipping bucket type
(d) Weighing type Ans: (a)
Q222. Which of the following rain guages give mass curve?
(a) Natural siphon type
(b) Weighting bucket type (c) Tipping bucket type
(d) Both Ans: (d)
Q223. During a 6-hour storm,
the rainfall intensity was 0.8
cm/hour on a catchment area 8.6 km2. The measured run-off
volume during the period was
2,56,000 m3. The total rainfall was lost due to infilteration,
evaporation and transpiration in
cm/hr is (a) 0.8
(b) 0.304
(c) 0.494
(d) cannot be determined Ans: (b)
Q224. What is the pan co-efficient for an ISI pan used for
measuring evaporation?
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.7
(c) 0.6
(d) 1 Ans: (a)
Q225. The plan area of a
reservior is 1 km2. The water level in the reservior is observed
to decline by 20 cm in a certain
period. During this period, the reservior received a surface
inflow of 10 hectare m and 20
hectare meters are abstracted from the reservior for irrigation
and power. The pan evaporation
and rainfall recorded during the same period was at a nearly
meteorological station are 12 cm
and 3 cm respectively. The
calibrated pan factor is 0.7. The seepage loss from the reservior
during this period in hectare m is
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2.4
(d) 4.6 Ans: (d)
Q226. Total area of DRH is equal to
(a) Total rainfall
(b) Total transpiration (c) Total evapotranspiration
(d) Run-off volume Ans: (d) Q227. Match the following: P.
Rainfall intensity
1. Isohyeto Q. Rainfall excess 2. Cumulative rainfall R. Rainfall
averaging
3. Hyetograph S. Mass curve 4. Direct run-off hydrograph
Codes: P QRS
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1 Ans: (b)
Q228. What is unity in a unit
run-off hydrograph? (a) Duration of storm
(b) Area of basin
(c) Depth of run-off (d) Base period of hydrograph ANS: (C)
Q229. While applying the rational formulae for computing
the design discharge, the rainfall
duration is stimulated as the time of concentration because
(a) This leads to the largest
possible rainfall intensity (b) This leads to the smallest
possible rainfall intensity
(c) The time of possible of the smallest rainfall duration for
which the rational formulae is
applicable
(d) None of these Ans: (a)
Q230. When the outflow from a storage reservior is uncontrolled
in a freely operating spillway, the
peak of outflow hydrograph occurs at
(a) point of intersection of the
inflow and outflow hydrographs (b) a point, after the intersection
of inflow and outflow
hydrographs
(c) the tail of inflow hydrographs (d) a point before the intersection
of inflow and outflow hydrograph Ans: (a)
Q231. By using rods, the velocity
obtained is (a) mean velocity
(b) maximum velocity
(c) minimum velocity (d) surface velocity Ans: (a) Q232. An aquifer is made of
sand having porosity 30%. The
specific yield of aquifer is
(a) 30% (b) > 30%
(c) < 30%
(d) data insufficient ANS: (C)
Q233. Water is pumped from a well tapping an unconfined
aquifer at a certain discharge
rate and the steady state drawdown (X) in an observation
well is monitored. Subsequently,
the pumping discharge is
doubled and the steady state drawdown in the observation well
is found to be more than double.
This disproportionate drawdown is caused by
(a) well losses
(b) decrease in saturated thickness of acquifer
(c) non-linear flow
(d) delayed gravity field ANS: (C)
Q234. Two observation wells
penetrated into a confined aquifer and located 1.5 km apart
in the direction of flow. Indicate
head of 45 m and 20 m. If the well of permeability of aquifer is
30 m/day and porosity is 0.25.
The time of travel of an inert to travel from one well to another is
(a) 416.7 days
(b) 500 days
(c) 750 days (d) 3000 days ANS: (C) Q235. A tube well of 50 cm
diameter penetrates fully in an
artesian aquifer. Strainer length is 15m. The aquifer consists of
sand of effective size of 0.2 mm
having coefficient of permeability equal to 50 m/day. Assume
radius of drawdown equal to 150
metres. What is the yield from
the well under a drawdown of 3 m?
(a) 20.6 lit/sec
(b) 23.6 lit/sec (c) 25.6 lit/sec
(d) 28.3 lit/sec Ans: (b)
Q236. A tube well penetrates
fully an unconfined aquifer. Diameter of the well = 30 cm
Drawdown = 2m Effective length
of the strainer under the above drawdown = 10 m Coefficient of
permeability of acquier = 0.05
cm/sec Radius of zero drawdown
= 300m What is discharge from the tubewell under given
conditions?
(a) 6 lit/sec (b) 8 lit/sec
(c) 9 lit/sec
(d) 12 lit/sec Ans: (c)
Q237. Peak of a flood hydrograph due to a six-hour
storm is 470 m3 /sec. The
average depth of rainfall is 8.0
cms. Assume an infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant
base flow of 15m3 /sec. The peak
discharge of a 6 hour unit hydrograph for this catchment,
will be
(a) 50m3 /sec (b) 60m3 /sec
(c) 70 m3 /sec
(d) 90 m3 /sec Ans: (c)
Q238. An open well in fine sand
give a discharge of 0.003 cumec when worked under a depression
head of 2.5 metres. The well
diametre will be (a) 2.4 m
(b) 2.8 m
(c) 3.0 m (d) 3.4 m Ans: (d)
Q239. A synthetic sample of water is prepared by adding 100
mg Kaolinite (a clay mineral), 200
mg glucose, 168 mg NaCl, 120 mg MgSO4 and 111 mg CaCl2 to
1 litre of pure water. The
concentrations of total solids (TS) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS)
respectively in the solution in
mg/L are equal to (a) 699 and 599
(b) 599 and 399
(c) 699 and 199
(d) 699 and 399 Ans: (a)
Q240. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit
causes
(a) cardio vascular problems (b) skin discolouration
(c) calcium deficiency
(d) increased laundry expenses Ans: (d)
Q241. A water treatment plant is required to process 28800 m3 /d
of raw water (density = 1000
kg/m3, kinematic viscosity = 106
m 2 /s). The rapid mixing tank imparts a velocity gradient of
900s1 to blend 35 mg/l of alum
with the flow for a detention time of 2 minutes. The power input
(W) required for rapid mixing is
(a) 32.4 (b) 36
(c) 324
(d) 32400 Ans: (d)
Q242. Consider the following
unit processes commonly used in water treatment; rapid mixing
(RM), flocculation (F), primary
sedimentation (PS), secondary sedimentation (SS), chlorination
(C) and rapid sand filteration
(RSF). The order of these unit processes (first to last) in a
conventional water treatment
plant is
(a) PS - RSF - F - RM - SS - C (b) PS - F - RM - RSF - SS - C
(c) PS - F - SS - RSF - RM - C
(d) PS - RM - F - SS - RSF - C Ans: (d)
Q243. Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of total coliform
as 106 /100 ml. After
chlorination, the MPN value declines to 102 /100 ml. The per
cent removal (%R) and log
removal (log R) of total coliform
MPN is (a) %R = 99.90; log R = 4
(b) %R = 99.90; log R = 2
(c) %R = 99.99; log R = 4 (d) %R = 99.99; log R = 2
Ans: (c) Q244. A water sample has a pH
of 9.25. The concentration of
hydroxyl ions in the water sample is
(a) 109.25 moles/l
(b) 104.75 moles/l
(c) 0.302 mg/l (d) 3.020 mg/l ANS: (C) Q245. A town is required to treat
4.2 m3 /min of raw water for
daily domestic supply. Flocculating particles are to be
produced by chemical
coagulation. A column analysis indicated that an overflow rate of
0.2 mm/s will produce
satisfactory particle removal in a settling basin at a depth of 3.5
m. The required surface area (in
m2) for settling is
(a) 210 (b) 350
(c) 1728
(d) 21000 Ans: (b)
Q246. Water distribution systems are sized to meet the
(a) max hourly demand
(b) Avg. hourly demand (c) max daily demand and fire
demand
(d) Avg. daily demand and fire
demand Ans: (d)
Q247. The microbial quality of treated piped water supplies is
monitored by
(a) Microscopic examination (b) Plate count of heterotrophic
bacteria
(c) Coliform MPN test
(d) Identification of all pathogens Ans: (c)
Q248. What factors is multiplied to max daily demand to obtain
peak hourly demand?
(a) 1.8 (b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.8 Ans: (b)
Q249. Temporary hardness in
water is caused by presence of (a) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
(b) Sulphates of Ca and Mg
(c) Chlorides of Ca and Mg (d) Nitrates of Ca and Mg
Ans: (a) Q250. In natural water,
hardness is mainly caused by
(a) Ca++ and Mn++ (b) Ca++ and Fe++
(c) Na+ and K+
(d) Ca++ and Mg++ Ans: (d)
Q251. The velocity of flow in
sedimentation tank is usually (a) 15-30 cm/hr
(b) 15-30 cm/min
(c) 15-30 cm/sec (d) 15-30 cm/day Ans: (b) Q252. Maximum BOD removal
efficiency is for
(a) Oxidation pond (b) Orientation ditch
(c) trickling filter
(d) Aerated lagoon Ans: (b)
Q253. Most of the turbidity
meters work on the scattering principle. The rabidity value OS
obtained is expressed in
(a) CFU (b) FTU
(c) JTU
(d) NTU Ans: (a)
Q254. Hardness of water is
directly measured by titration
with ethylene-di-amine-tetracetic
acid (EDTA) using (a) eriochrome black T indicator
(b) ferroin indicator
(c) methyl orange indicator (d) phenolphthalein indicator Ans: (a)
Q255. TCU is equivalent to the colour produced by
(a) 1 mg/L of chlorplatinate ion
(b) 1 mg/L of platinum ion (c) 1 mg/L Platinum in form of
chlorplatinate ion.
(d) 1 mg/L of organo-chlorplatinate ion Ans: (a) Q256. The alkalinity and the
hardness of a water sample are
250 mg/L and 350 mg/L as
CaCo3, respectively. The water has
(a) 350 mg/L, carbonate
hardness and zero non-carbonate hardness.
(b) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness
and zero non-carbonate hardness (c) 250m/L carbonate hardness
and 350 mg/L noncarbonate
hardness (d) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness
and 100 mg/L noncarbonate
hardness Ans: (d)
Q257. Two sample of water A
and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How many times
more acidic sample A is than
sample B? (a) 0
(b) 15
(c) 100 (d) 200 Ans: (c) Q258. Minimum (Do) required
for aquatic life in river water is
(a) 2ppm
(b) 6ppm (c) 4ppm
(d) 10ppm ANS: (C)
Q259. What is the maximum
permissible value of total solid in water used for domestic
purposes?
(a) Zero (b) 100 ppm
(c) 500ppm
(d) 1000ppm ANS: (C)
Q260. Zero hardness of water is
obtained by which process (a) ion exchange process
(b) lime soda process
(c) excess lime treatment (d) excess alum and lime
treatment Ans: (a) Q261. Group I contains some
properties of water/wastewater
and group II contains list of some tests on water/waste water.
Match the property with
corresponding test Group I Group II P. Suspended solids
concentration
1. BOD Q. Metabolism of biodegradable
2. MPN organics R. Bacterial
concentration
3. Jar test S. Coagulant dose 4. Turbidity Codes: P QR S P Q
R S
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 2 1 3 Ans: (b)
Q262. 27. In a continuous flow sedimentation tank, setting
velocity of particles that is to be
removed should be:
(a) more than SOR (b) equal to SOR
(c) less than SOR
(d) does not depend on SOR Ans: (a)
Q263. Flocculation is a process (a) that removes algae from
stabilization pond effluent
(b) that promotes the aggregation of small particles into larger
particles to enhance their
removal bye gravity. (c) All the above
(d) None of these Ans: (b) Q264. Design parameters for
rapid mixing units are
(a) velocity gradient and the volume of mixing basin
(b) viscosity and velocity gradient
(c) viscosity, velocity gradient and the volume of the mixing basin
(d) detention time and viscosity of
water Ans: (c)
Q265. Pathogens are usually
removed by
(a) Chemical precipitation (b
Chlorine (c) Ozone
(d) UV-radiation Ans: (d)
Q266. Coagulation-flocculation
with alum is performed
(a) immediately before chlorination
(b) immediately after chlorination
(c) after rapid sand filtration (d) before rapid sand filtration Ans: (d) Q267. For a flow of 5.7 MLD
(million liters per day) and a
detention time of 2 hours, the surface area of a rectangular
sedimentation tank to remove all
particles have setting velocity of
0.33 mm/s is (a) 20m2
(b) 100m2
(c) 200m2 (d) 400m2
Ans: (c) Q268. Use of coagulants such as
alum
(a) results in reduction of pH of the treated water.
(b) results in increases of pH of
the treated water.
(c) results in no change in pH of the treated water.
(d) May cause and increase or
decrease of pH of the treated water. Ans: (b) Q269. The following chemical is
used for coagulation
(a) Ammonium Chloride (b) Aluminum Chloride
(c) Aluminum Sulphate
(d) Copper sulphate Ans: (c)
Q270. A town has an existing
horizontal flow sedimentation tank with an overflow rate of
17m3 /day/m2, and it is
desirable to remove particles that having setting velocity of
0.1mm/sec. Assuming the tank
is an ideal sedimentation tank, the percentage of particles
removal is approximately equal
to (a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 90% Ans: (b)
Q271. For a water treatment plant having a flow rate of 432m3
/hr, what is the required plan
area of a type I settling tank to remove 90% of the particles
having a setting velocity of 0.12
cm/sec is
(a) 120m2 (b) 111m2
(c) 90m2
(d) 100m2 ANS: (C)
Q272. An ideal horizontal flow settling basin is 3m deep having
surface area 900m2. Water flows
at the rate of 8000 m2 /d, at water temperature 200C(m = 103
kg/m.s) and U 1000kg/ m3).
Assuming stokes law to be valid,
the proportion (percentage) of spherical sand particles (0.01
mm in diameter with specific
gravity 2.65), that will be removed, is
(a) 32.5
(b) 67 (c) 87.5
(d) 95.5 ANS: (C)
Q273. Match the following Type
of water impurity Method of
Treatment (P) Hardness (1) Reverse Osmosis (Q) Brackish
water (2) Cholorination from sea
(R) Residual mpn (3) Zeolite treatment from filter (S) Turbidity
(4) Coagulation and flocculation
(5) Coagulation, flocculation, filtration Option: P QR S
(a) 1 2 4 5
(b) 3 2 2 4 (c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 3 1 2 5 Ans: (d)
Q274. Zero hardness is achieved
by
(a) Lime soda process (b) Excess lime treatment
(c) ion exchange process
(d) excess lime and lime treatment. Ans: (c) Q275. The design parameter for
flocculation is given by a
dimensionless number Gt, where G is the velocity gradient and t is
the detention time. Values of Gt
ranging from 104 to 105 are
commonly used, with t ranging from 10 to 30mm. The most
preffered combination of G and t
to produce smaller and denser flocs is
(a) large G values with short t
(b) large G values with long t (c) small G values with short t
(d) small G values with short t Ans: (a) Q276. What is the surface
overflow rate in the
sedimentation tank? (a) 20m3 /m2 /day
(b) 40m3 /m2 /day
(c) 67m3 /m2 /day (d) 133m3 /m2 /day Ans: (a) Q277. The disinfection efficiency
of chlorine in water treatment
(a) is not dependent on pH value
(b) is increased by increase in pH value
(c) will remain constant at all pH
value (d) is reduced by increase pH
value Ans: (d)
Q278. Chlorine gas used in
disinfection combines with water to form hypochlorous acid(HOCl),
the HOCl ionizes to form
hypochlorite(OCl) in a reversible
reaction HOCl U H+ +OCl (k = 2.7 106 at 20oC), the
equilibrium of which is governed
by pH. The sum of HOCl and OCl is known as free chlorine
residual and HOCl is more
effective disinfectant. The 90% fraction of HOCl in free chlorine
residual is available at pH value.
(a) 4.8 (b) 6.6
(c) 7.5
(d) 9.4 Ans: (b)
Q279. The absorbent most
commonly used in water and waste treatment
(a) Sand of grain size from 0.1 to
2 mm (b) Activated carbon granules of
size 0.1 to 0.2mm greater than or
less than COD (c) Stand of grain size from 3 to 5
mm.
(d) None of these Ans: (b)
Q280. In a certain situation,
wastewater discharged into a river, mixes with the river water
instantaneously and completely.
Following is the data available. Wastewater: DO=2.00 mg/L
Discharge rate = 1.10 m3 /s River
water DO = 8.3 mg/L Flow rate = 8.70 m3 /s Temperature = 200C
the initial amount of DO in
mixture of waste and river is
(a) 5.3 mg/l (b) 6.5 mg/l
(c) 7.6 mg/l
(d) 8.4 mg/l Ans: (c)
Q281. Ans: (b)
Q282. The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be
determined from the following
(a) Ductility test
(b) Penetration test (c) Softening point test
(d) Viscosity test Ans: (d)
Q283. The extra widening
required for a two-lane national highway at a horizontal curve of
300 m radius, considering a
wheel base of 8 m and a design speed of 100 kmph is
(a) 0.42 m
(b) 0.62 m
(c) 0.82 m (d) 0.92 m Ans: (c) Q284. While designing a hill road
with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a
sharp horizontal curve of 50 m radius is encountered, the
compensated gradient at the
curve as per the Indian Roads Congress specifications should
be
(a) 4.4% (b) 4.75%
(c) 5.0%
(d) 5.25% Ans: (a)
Q285. The design speed on a
road is 60 kmph. Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5
seconds and coefficient of friction
of pavement surface as 0.35, the required slopping distance for
two-way traffic on a single lane
road is (a) 82.1 m
(b) 102.4 m
(c) 164.2 m
(d) 186.4 m Ans: (c)
Q286. Match the following tests on aggregate and its properties
TEST PROPERTY P. Crushing
test Ans: (d)
Q287. The specific gravity of paving bitumen as per IS:73-
1992 lies between
(a) 1.10 and 1.06 (b) 1.06 and 1.02
(c) 1.02 and 0.97
(d) 0.97 and 0.92 Ans: (c)
Q288. A combined value of flakiness and elongation index is
to be determined for a sample of
aggregates. The sequence in
which the two tests are conducted is
(a) elongation index test followed
by flakiness index test on the whole sample.
(b) flakiness index test followed
by elongation index test on the whole sample.
(c) flakiness index test followed
by elongation index test on the non-flaky aggregates.
(d) elongation index test followed
by flakiness index test on non-
elongated aggregates. Ans: (b)
Q289. Which of the following stress combinations are
appropriate in identifying the
critical condition for the design of concrete pavements? Type of
Stress Location P. Load
Ans: (a)
Q290. The design speed for a two-lane road is 80 kmph. When
a design vehicle with a wheel
base of 6.6 m is negotiating a
horizontal curve on that road, the off-tracking is measured as
0.096 m. The required widening
of carriageway of the two-lane road on the curve is
approximately
(a) 0.55 m (b) 0.65 m
(c) 0.75 m
(d) 0.85 m Ans: (c)
Q291. In Marshall testing of
bituminous mixes, as the bitumen content increases the
flow value
(a) remains constant (b) decreases first and then
increases
(c) increases monotonically
(d) increases first and then decreases Ans: (c) Q292. Road roughness is
measured using
(a) Benkelman beam (b) Bump integrator
(c) Dynamic cone penetrometer
(d) Falling weight deflectometer Ans: (b)
Q293. The following data are
related to a horizontal curved portion of a two-lane highway:
length of curve = 200 m, radius
of curve = 300 m and width of pavement = 7.5 m. In order to
provide a stopping sight distance
(SSD) of 80 m, the set back distance (in m) required from the
centre line of the inner lane of
the pavement is (a) 2.54
(b) 4.55
(c) 7.10
(d) 7.96 Ans: (a)
Q294. What is the relationship between camber
(c) and longitudinal gradient (G)
in normal design? (a) c = 2G
(b) c = G
(c) c = G/2 ANS: (C)
Q295. The convexity provided to the carriage way between the
crown and edge of pavement is
known as
(a) gradient (b) camber
(c) slope
(d) vertical curve Ans: (b)
Q296. What is the stopping sight distance(SSD) for a design speed
of 50kmph for a 2-way traffic on
a single lane road. Take reaction time as 2 seconds and coeff. of
friction 0.36
(a) 55.14m
(b) 110.28m (c) 27.57m
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(d) 26.8m
Ans: (b)
Q297. The reaction time for
calculating SSD is taken as: (a) 5 sec
(b) 2.5 sec
(c) 0.5 sec
(d) 10 sec Ans: (b)
Q298. A vehicle travelling on clay, level pavement at 80 kmph
had the brakes applied. The
vehicle travelled 76.5 m before stopping. What is the coeff. of
friction that has developed?
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.3
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.4 ANS: (C)
Q299. The safe SSD for a design
speed of 50 kmph for a 2 lane and with coeff. of friction 0.37 is
(a) 61.3 m
(b) 81.7 m (c) 123.7 m
(d) 161.6 m Ans: (a)
Q300. Calculate the SSD for an
ascending gradient of 5% for a
design speed of 60 kmph (t = 2.5s, f = 0.35)
(a) 77.13 m
(b) 154.26 m (c) 87.13 m
(d) 164.26 m Ans: (a)
Q301. What is the intermediate
sight distance (ISD) for a design speed of 50kmph with coeff. of
friction 0.37?
(a) 61.3 m (b) 30.6 m
(c) 122.6 m
(d) none of these Ans: (b)
Q302. A car is moving at a speed
of 72 kmph on a road having 2% upward gradient. If the reaction
time of driver is 1.5 seconds and
f = 0.18. Calculate the distance moved by the vehicle before the
car stops finally?
(a) 24 m (b) 150 m
(c) 1056 m
(d) 324 m Ans: (b)
Q303. The overtaking vehicle has
a speed of 60 kmph and an acceleration of 0.9. The speed of
overtaken vehicle is 40 kmph, on
a two way traffic road. The safe overtaking sight distance is
(a) 261 m
(b) 212 m
(c) 282 m (d) 255 m Ans: (a) Q304. For a highway with design
speed of 100 kmph, safe OSD is
(a = 0.53 m/s2) (a) 300 m
(b) 750 m
(c) 320 m (d) 470 m Ans: (b)
Q305. Minimum length of overtaking zone is equal to
(a) OSD
(b) 20 OSD (c) 3 OSD
(d) 4 OSD Ans: (c)
Q306. What is the super
elevation required for a horizontal curve of 120 m and
design speed of 60 kmph having
coeff. of lateral friction 0.13?
(a) 0.11 (b) 0.13
(c) 0.011
(d) 0.03 Ans: (a)
Q307. Calculate the required super elevation for a horizontal
curve of 135 m and design speed
of 67 kmph. Where the pressure in inner and outer wheels should
be equal?
(a) 0.026 (b) 0.02
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.26 Ans: (d)
Q308. A road is having a
horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a super elevation of
0.07 is provided. The coeff. of
lateral friction mobilized on the curve when vehicle is travelling
at 100 kmph is
(a) 0.007 (b) 0.13
(c) 0.15
(d) 0.4 Ans: (b)
Q309. What is the mechanical
widening required for a road of 8 m width on a horizontal curve of
310 m. length of longest wheel