Flt 3 Eng(Offline)

8/9/2019 Flt 3 Eng(Offline)

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F U L L L E N G T H T E S T 3

JEE MAINDate: 02-02-2014 Time: 3 Hours. Max. Marks: 360

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS1. The question paper consists of '90' objective type questions. There are ' 30 ' questions each in

Mathematics , Physics and Chemistry respectively. Please fill the OMR answer Sheet accordinglyand carefully.

2. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3. You will be awarded 4 marks for each question, if you have darkened only the bubble correspondingto the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( 1)mark will be awarded.

4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each questionwill be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as perinstruction 3 above.

5. Use Black or Blue Ball Point Pen only for filling particulars.

6. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.

7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided at the bottom and in end of the booklet for this purposein the Test Booklet only.

8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. However,the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

USEFUL DATA

Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96[Take : ln 2 = 0.693, ln 1.1 = 0.095 , ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 10 19, m e= 9.1 10 31 kg ]Take 0 = 8.85 10

12 , g = 10 m/s 2 unless otherwise stated

ENGLISH


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Full Length Test-3 [JEE Main] Page # 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M A T H E M A T I C S

Q.1 to Q.30 has four choices (1), (2), (3), (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Q.1 Let the equations of two ellipses be E 1 : 2y

3x 22 ! = 1 and E 2 : 2

22

b

y16x ! = 1. If the product of their

eccentricities is21

, then the length of the minor axis of ellipse E 2 is

(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2

Q.2 Let a = Im. "" #

$%%&

' !iz2z1 2

, where z is any non-zero complex number and i = 1( .

The set A = ) *1zand1|z:|a +,- is equal to(1) [ 1, 1] (2) ( 1, 0] (3) [0, 1) (4) ( 1, 1)

Q.3 On the sides AB, BC, CA of a . ABC, 3, 4, 5 distinct points (excluding vertices A, B, C) arerespectively chosen. The number of triangles that can be constructed using these chosen points as verticesare(1) 220 (2) 215 (3) 210 (4) 205

Q.4 Let f : [ 1, 3] / [ 8, 72] be defined as f (x) = 4x 3 12x, then f is(1) injective but not surjective (2) injective as well as surjective(3) neither injective nor surjective (4) surjective but not injective

Q.5 The value of 2

xsin

0

1

x )x(

dttsinLim

0!1 (

0(/ is equal to

(1)21(

(2) 0 (3)21

(4) 2


3/21



Q.6 If the function f (x) =23

245

678!!77!(

87(6!

x3,1qxpx3x2,6x5x

2x,bax

2

2

is differentiable in ( 6 , 6 ), then

(1) a = 1, p = 94(

(2) b = 2, q = 35

(3) a = 1, b = 2 (4) a = 1, q = 35(

Q.7 A tangent to the hyperbola x 2 2y2 = 4 meets x-axis at P and y-axis at Q. Line PR and QR aredrawn such that OPRQ is a rectangle (where O is origin). The locus of R is

(1) 22 y2

x4 ! = 1 (2) 1

y2

x4

22 -( (3) 1y4

x2

22 -( (4) 1y4

x2

22 -!

Q.8 The value of "" #

$%%&

' " #

$%&

'

!96

-

(

1r2

1

3r4

4tantan is equal to

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Q.9 The system of linear equations x + y + z = 2, 2x + y z = 3, 3x + 2y + kz = 4 has a unique solution,if (1) 1 < k < 1 (2) 2 < k < 2 (3) k , 0 (4) k = 0

Q.10 Let Q be the foot of perpendicular from the origin to the plane 4x 3y + z + 13 = 0 and R be a point( 1, 1, 6) on the plane. The length QR is

(1) 327

(2) 14 (3) 219

(4)2

3

Q.11 If z 1, z2, z3 : C satisfies i z 3 + z 2 z + i = 0, where i = 1( then the area of triangle formed byz1, z2 and z 3 is equal to

(1)2

1(2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4)

221


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Q.12 If A be a 3 3 matrix with real entries such that det. (adj A) = 16, then det. ; 0 is48 square units then = is equal to

(1)31

(2)91

(3) 3 (4) 9

Q.14 The complete set of real values of x for which e x > 1 + x, is equal to(1) ( 6 , 6 ) (2) (0, 6 ) (3) ( 6 , 0) (4) ( 6 , 0) > (0, 6 )

Q.15 A common tangent to the conics x 2 = 6y and 2x 2 4y2 = 9, is

(1) x + y = 1 (2) x y = 1 (3) x + y =29

(4) x y =23

Q.16 If (p ? ~ r) / (~p @q) is false, then the truth values of p, q and r are respectively(1) T, F and F (2) F, F and T (3) F, T and T (4) T, F and T

Q.17 The solution of differentiable equation 2y sin xdxdy

= sin 2x y2 cos x satisfying y " # $%

& ' 0

2 = 1 is

(1) y 2 = cos x + 1 (2) y = sin 2 x(3) y 2 sin x = 4 cos 2x + 1 (4) y 2 = sin x

Q.18 The graph of function f (x) =12x

20x

45

( + 5 has

(1) no local extremum, one point of inflection.(2) two local maximum, one local minimum, two point of inflection.(3) one local maximum, one local minimum, one point of inflection.(4) one local maximum, one local minimum, two point of inflection.


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Q.19 If =, A are the roots of equation x 2 3x + c = 0 (c : R) and = < 1 < A, then c belongs to

(1) " # $%

& ' 6(

49

, (2) ( 6 , 2) (3) (2, 6 ) (4) " # $%

& ' 6,

49

Q.20 If for positive integers r > 1, n > 2, the coefficients of the (3r) th and (r + 2) th powers of xin the expansion of (1 + x) 2n are equal, then n is equal to(1) 2r 1 (2) 2r + 1 (3) 3r (4) r + 1

Q.21 If two events A and B are such that P(A ' ) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.4 and P(A B B ' ) = 0.5, then " # $%

& '

> 'BAB

P

equals

(1)43

(2)65

(3)41

(4)73

Q.22 The equation of a plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes x + 2y = 3, y 2z + 1 = 0and perpendicular to the first plane is(1) 2x y 10z = 9 (2) 2x y 9z = 10(3) 2x y + 10 z = 11 (4) 2x y + 7z = 11

Q.23 The equation of line passing through the points of intersection of parabola x 2 = 8y and ellipse

3x 2

+ y2 = 1, is

(1) 3y + 1 = 0 (2) y 3 = 0 (3) y + 3 = 0 (4) 3y 1 = 0


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Q.24 The value of definite integral 10

0C

C!C(

C(3

2

2

dcos1

sin1e 2 is equal to

(1) 42 e2e3

2 0(0(

( (2) "" #

$%%&

' (

00(

13

ee26

3

(3) ""

#

$%%

&

' !(

000( 0642 ee2

3e

e23

(4) 43 e2e20(0(

(

Q.25 If two lines L 1 and L 2 in space are defined by L 1 = ; < ;


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Q.29 Let ABC be a triangle with vertices at points A(2, 3, 5), B( 1, 3, 2) and C( D, 5, ) inthree dimensional space. If the median through A is equally inclined with the axes, then ( D, E) is equal to(1) (7, 5) (2) (10, 7) (3) (5, 7) (4) (7, 10)

Q.30 If the sum of the series 25 + 2452

+ 2354

+ 2351

+ is maximum, then

(1) last term of the series is 0. (2) last term of the series is51

.

(3) number of terms of the series are 42. (4) number of terms of the series are 40.


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P H Y S I C S


Q.31 Two blocks A and B of mass m and 4m are connected with a rod PQ of length ! and mass 6m throughlight strings. There is no friction anywhere. If the system is released from rest and the rod PQ slides onthe incline, then for the position shown in the figure, the ratio of the speeds of the mass A to that of the

mass B is

m

P

= Q

4m

A 6m

B

A

(1)A

=

sin

sin(2)

A

=

cos

cos(3)

)cos(

)cos(

A(=

A!=(4)

)sin(

)sin(

A(=

A!=

Q.32 The linear velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of a given radius is(1) proportional to its mass (2) independent of its mass(3) proportional to the square root of its mass (4) inversely proportional to its mass

Q.33 In the figure, a man of true mass M kg is standing on a weighing machine placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a body of mass m kg. Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of cabin andweighing machine, the measured weight of man in kg force.

m

(1)mM

Mm! (2) mM

Mm( (3) M (4) depends on g


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Q.34 Two particles 1 and 2 are moving in concentric circular paths in clockwise sense of radii R 1 and R 2. At

a certain instant of time both are situated on the same radial line and have radial acceleration 1a"

and 2a"

whereas tangential velocities 1v"

and 2v"

respectively. The acceleration of 2 w.r.t. 1 is

(1) 12 aa ""( (2) 12 aa

""!

(3)1

2

12

2

212 Rv

Rv

aa (!(""

(4) ; < "" # $

%%& '

!!!1

2

12

2

212 Rv

Rv

aa ""

Q.35 Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = (4t 3 5t + 2) watt, where t is in second. Find thechange in its K.E. between time t = 2 and t = 4 sec.(1) 184 J (2) 200 J (3) 214 J (4) 224 J

Q.36 Two vessels A and B contain water at temperature T A and T B, at 10 C and 2C respectively. If the water in both the vessels were compressed adiabatically and if we take into account the finite bulk modulus of elasticity of water, then T A and T B

(1) increase and decrease respectively (2) decrease and increase respectively(3) both increase (4) both decrease

Q.37 A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure p and volume v are related as Vp 2 = constant. The bulk modulus for the gas in this process is(1) p/2 (2) 2p (3) 2pv (4) 3p

Q.38 An ice cube of size a = 20 cm is floating in a lake filled with water. The relative density of ice is 0.9. Thechange in gravitational potential energy when ice melts completely will be(1) Zero (2) increase by 0.72 J(3) decrease by 0.72 J (4) increase by 7.2 J

Q.39 If one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas ( I = 5/3) is mixed with one mole of ideal diatomic gas ( I=7/5),the value of I for the mixture will be(1) 1.4 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.53 (4) 3.07


10/21



Q.40 A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q areat a distance of 9 meters and 25 meters respectively from the source. The ratio of the amplitudes of thewaves at P and Q is(1) 5:3 (2) 3:5 (3) 25:9 (4) 625:81

Q.41 In a resonance tube water is filled so that height of air column is 0.1 m when it resonates in its fundamental

mode. Now water is removed so that the height of air column becomes 0.35 m and it resonates with nexthigher frequency. Then end correction is(1) 0.012 (2) 0.025 (3) 0.05 (4) 0.24

Q.42 If the Young's modulus of material of rod is 2 1011 N/m 2 and density is 8000 kg/m 3, what is the timetaken by sound wave to travel 1m of the rod?(1) 10 4 sec (2) 10 2 sec (3) 2 10 4 sec (4) 2 10 2 sec

Q.43 A glass capillary tube of internal radius r = 0.25 mm is immersed in water. The top end of the tubeprojects by 2 cm above the surface of water. At what angle does the liquid meet the tube? Surfacetension of water = 0.07 N m 1 and its contact angle is 0 .

(1) sin 1 (0.5) (2) cos 1 (0.5) (3) cos 1 " # $%

& '

145

(4) sin 1 " # $%

& '

145

Q.44 Several spherical drops of a liquid each of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R. If T is thesurface tension, then the energy liberated will be -

(1) 4 0R3T " # $%

& ' (

R1

r1

(2) 2 0R3T " # $%

& ' (

R1

r1

(3)34 0r2T " #

$%& ' (

R1

r1

(4) 2 0RT " # $%

& ' (

r1

R1

Q.45 Ratio of amplitude of two waves is 1:16. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity when 2 wavesinterfere is(1) 289 : 25 (2) 1 : 256 (3) 289 : 225 (4) 3 : 1

Q.46 A coil of inductance L = 300mH and resistance R = 140 m J is connected to a constant voltage source.Current in the coil will reach to 50% of its steady state value after t is nearly equal to(1) 15 s (2) 0.75 s (3) 0.15 s (4) 1.5 s


11/21



Q.47 If the rheostat slider were to move from the extreme right of the far left, How will the reading of voltmeterV1 change?

V 1

V

(1) First increase and then decrease (2) First decrease and then increase(3) Increase continuously (4) Decrease continuously

Q.48 Two long parallel straight conductors carry current i 1 and i 2 (i1 > i 2). When the currents are in the samedirection, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 20 T. If the direction of i 2 is reversed,the field becomes 50 T. The ratio of the currents i 1 / i2 is :(1) 5/2 (2) 7/3 (3) 4/3 (4) 5/3

Q.49 In a meter bridge experiment, null point is obtained at 40cm from left end when unknown resistance isinserted in left gap and a resistance of 60 J is inserted in the right gap. If resistance of 60 J is keptsame, but the wire in left gap is cut in two equal parts, and joined in parallel across the left gap, the newnull point is at(1) 40 cm from left end (2) 20 cm from left end

(3) 10 cm from left end (4)7

100 cm from left end

Q.50 Statement-1 : The core of the transformer is laminated to avoid loss of energy.Statement-2 : A laminated metal sheet placed in a changing magnetic field has lower eddy current.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.


12/21



Q.51 The wavelength of radiation emitted is D0 when an electron jumps from the third to the second orbit of hydrogen atom. When an electron jumps from the fourth to second orbit of the hydrogen atom, thewavelength of radiation emitted will be

(1) 02516 D (2) 027

20 D (3) 02027 D (4) 016

25 D

Q.52 If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is tripled, by what factor does de-Broglie wavelengthof electrons beam change.

(1)31

times (2) 3 times (3) 3 times (4) 3

1 times

Q.53 Consider the nuclear reactionX200 K/ A110 + B 90

If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B is 7.4 MeV, 8.2. MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, whatis the energy released ?(1) 200 MeV (2) 160 MeV (3) 110 MeV (4) 90 MeV

Q.54 A vernier callipers has its main scale of 10 cm equally divided into 200 equal parts. Its vernier scale of 25 divisions coincides with 12 mm on the main scale. The least count of the instrument is-(1) 0.020 cm (2) 0.002 cm (3) 0.010 cm (4) 0.001 cm

Q.55 If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30 , the velocity of light in themedium is

(1) 3 108 m/s (2) 1.5 108 m/s (3) 6 108 m/s (4) 3 108 m/s

Q.56 Statement-1 : When a beam of white light passes through a transparent prism kept in air, red lightdeviates less than violet light.Statement-2 : The photon of red light has more momentum than the photon of violet light.(1) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.


13/21



Q.57 Germanium and silicon junction diodes are connected in parallel. These are connected in series with aresistance R, a milliammeter (mA) and a key (K) as shown in fig. When key (K) is closed a currentbegins to flow in the milliammeter. The potential drop across the germanium diode is- (Reverse break down does not occures in any diode., (Knee Voltage for Ge = 0.3 volt and for Si is 0.7 volt)

V

R

Si

Ge

mA

+ 12V K

(1) 0.3 V (2) 0.7 V (3) 1.1 V (4) 12 V

Q.58 You are walking down a long hallway that has many light fixtures in the ceiling and a very shiny, newlywaxed floor. In the floor, you see reflections of every light fixture. Now you put on sunglasses that arepolarized. Some of the reflections of the light fixtures can not longer be seen. The reflections that disappearare those(1) Nearest to you (2) Farthest from you(3) At an intermediate distance from you (4) None of these

Q.59 Identify the parts X and Y in the block diagram of generalized communication system shown figure

TransmitterX Y Receiver

(1) Transducer and information source(2) Information source and transducer(3) Information source and communication channel(4) Communication channel and information source


14/21



Q.60 The figure represent B - H curve for commercial iron.As H is increased, permeability(1) increases and becomes constant(2) increases, reaches a maximum and then decreases

B

H

(3) decreases continuously till it becomes very small(4) decreases reaches a minimum and then increases


15/21



C H E M I S T R Y


Q.61 How many times solubility of CaF 2 is decreased in 4 10 3 M KF (aq.) solution as compare to pure

water at 25 C. Given Ksp (CaF 2) = 3.2 10 11

(1) 50 (2) 100 (3) 500 (4) 1000

Q.62 AgNO 3 K/ K . (W) + (X) + O 2(X) + H 2O K/ HNO 2 + HNO 3(W) + HNO 3 K/ Y + NO + H 2O(Y) + Na 2S2O3 (excess) K/ (Z) + NaNO 3Identify (W) to (Z).(1) W = Ag X = N 2O Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na 2[Ag(S 2O3)2]

(2) W = Ag 2O X = NO Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na 3[Ag(S 2O3)2]

(3) W =Ag X = NO 2 Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na 3[Ag(S 2O3)2]

(4) W = Ag 2O X = N 2 Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na[Ag(S 2O3)2]

Q.63 Which of the following produce chiral molecule after treatment with Lindlar's catalyst?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.64 The standard reduction potential s of half cell OCl /Cl , OH and Cl 2 /Cl are 0.94 volt and +1.36 volt

respectively. What is the reduction potential of half cell whose cell reaction is represented as

2OCl

+ 2H 2O + 2e K/ Cl 2(g) + 4OH

(1) 0.21 V (2) 0.52 V (3) 1.04 V (4) 2.1 V


16/21



Q.65 The product A and B in the following sequence of reactions, respectively are

)(NH

EtOH,Li

3 l K K K / K A

OHZn)ii(

.)equiv1(O)i(

2

3 K K K K / K B

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q.66 The extraction of aluminium involves the electrolysis of purified bauxite dissolved in molten cryolite,Na3AlF 6. The role of cryolite is to(1) Increase the electrical conductivity of the melt (2) Reduces fuel bill(3) Reduce the melting point of the mixture (4) All

Q.67 For the reaction : CH 3COCH 3 + Br 2 K K/ K H CH 3COCH 2Br + H + + Br the following data was collected

[Acetone] [Br 2] [H+] Rate of reaction (Ms 1)

0.15 0.025 0.025 6 10 4

0.15 0.050 0.025 6 10 4

0.15 0.025 0.050 12 10 4

0.20 0.025 0.025 8.0 10 4

The order of the reaction w.r.t. CH 3COCH 3 and Br 2 respectively are :(1) 0,1 (2) 1,0 (3) 1,1 (4) 1,2

Q.68 Unknown salt 'A' + solid K2Cr2O7 + conc. H 2SO 4 K/ Reddish brown fumes.Which is the correct statement regarding the above observation(1) It confirms the presence of Cl ion(2) It confirms the presence of Br ion(3) It confirms the presence of both(4) It neither confirms Cl nor Br

unless it is passed through NaOH solution


17/21



Q.69 HC L CH K K K K / K MgBrCH2 3 (1) M K K K / K H / HOH)ii(CO2)i( 2 (2)

4

42

HgSO

SOH K K K / K (3) K/ K . (4)

(4) is:

(1) COOHCCH||

O

3 (( (2) 33 CHCCH||

O

((

(2) COOHCHCHOOC||

O

2 ((( (4)CH C

CH CO

O

O

Q.70 When photons of wavelength D = 253.7 nm is subjected on Cu plate (work function = 4.65 eV) thenphotoelectrons emitted. The magnitude of potential required to stop photocurrent completely is 0.24 V.The kinetic energy of ejected electron may not be(1) 0.24 eV (2) 0.20 eV (3) 0.10 eV (4) 0.4 eV

Q.71 Fe 2+ and Fe 3+ can be distinguished by(1) K 3[Fe(CN) 6] (2) K 4[Fe(CN) 6] (3) KSCN (4) All

Q.72 Glucose and fructose form identical osazones becuase:(1) they are monosaccharides (2) they are reducing sugars(3) they are epimers (4) their configurations differ only at C-1 and C-2

Q.73 If . Hvaporisation of (C 2H5)2 O ( l) is 350 J/g at it's boiling point 300 K, then molar entropy change forcondensation process is

(1) 86.33 J/mol.K (2) 86.33 J/mol.K (3) 1.16 J/mol.K (4) 1.16

Q.74 Which of the following oxides is / are not acidic in nature?(1) ClO 2 (2) N 2O (3) Cl 2O (4) NO 2


18/21



Q.75 K K K K / K 42SOH.conc (X)excess

OH / Br 22 K K K / K (Y)

Product (Y) of above reaction is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.76 Benzene and toluene forms an ideal solution. Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 100 torr while that of

pure toluene is 50 torr. If mole faction of benzene in liquid phase is31

. Then calculate the mole fraction

of benzene in vapour phase.

(1) 32

(2) 21

(3) 52

(4) 31

Q.77 A sodium salt on treatment with MgCl 2 gives white precipitate only on heating. The anion of the sodiumsalt is:

(1) (3HCO (2)(2

3CO (3)(3NO (4)

(24SO


19/21



Q.78 Ph C O

Ph

Et

CH 3

O

K K K / K ! 18

2OH / H

Products of this reaction is :

(1) HOPh

Et

CH3Ph C OHPh C OH

18

O

+ + en (2)O||

OHCPh (( + HOPh

Et

CH3

+ en18

(3) HO

Ph

Et

CH 3Ph C OHPh C OH

18O

+ + en (4) HO

Ph

Et

CH 3Ph C OHPh C OH1818

O+ + en

Q.79 A closed rigid empty vessel is maintained at 87 C. By any mechanism, COCl 2(g) is introduced in thevessel at 4 bar. If after a long time, the total pressure of gases in the vessel become 7 bar, then K P for thereaction :

CO(g) + Cl 2(g) COCl 2(g)

(1) 9 bar (2)91

bar (3)91

bar 1 (4) 9 bar 1

Q.80 Which of the following molecule is not having perfect geometrical shape.(1) PCl 3F2 (2) CF 4 (3) BF 2Cl (4) [SiF 6]

2

Q.81 Monomer used to prepare Orlon is:(1) CH 2=CHCN (2) CH 2=CH Cl (3) CH 2=CHF (4) CH 2=CCl 2


20/21



Q.82 Copper metal crystallizes in FCC lattice. Edge length of unit cell is 362 pm. The radius of largest atomthat can fit into the voids of copper lattice without disturbing it.(1) 53 pm (2) 45 pm (3) 93 pm (4) 60 pm

Q.83 Which of the following can be dehydrated by using a drying agent ?(1) [Co(NH 3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl 2 (2) [Cr(H 2O)6]Cl 3

(3) [Co(NH 3)4Cl2]Cl.H 2O (4) All of these

Q.84 Following conversion has to be carried out in three steps.

Cyclohexanone / CycloheptanoneO O

Pick the reagents from the following list in correct order.

* dil NaOH / . (a)

* NaCN/ NH 4Cl (b)* LiAlH 4 (c)

* O 3 / Zn H 2O (d)

* NaNO 2 + HCl (e)

* NH 2 NH2 . KOH (f)(1) a, e, f (2) b, c, e (3) a, d, f (4) b, c, f

Q.85 Two gases of molecular mass M A and M B are taken in a container of volume 'V' at temperature. 'T'. If MA > M B then momentum change per collision of gases are such that [Assume ideal behaviour](1) . PA>. PB (2) . PB< . PA (3) . PB= . PA (4) data insufficient

Q.86 Which of the following complexes can exist as diastereoisomers?(1) [Cr(NH 3)2Cl4]

(2) [Co(NH 3)5Br]2+

(3) [FeCl 2(NCS) 2]2 (4) [PtClBr 3]

2

Q.87 A tripeptide has ...... peptide bonds :(1) three (2) two (3) four (4) one


21/21



Q.88 What volume of 0.1 M Ba(OH) 2 is needed to completely neutralize 25 ml of 0.2 M SO 2Cl2 solutionmixed with excess of water.(1) 100 ml (2) 50 ml (3) 200 ml (4) 25 ml

Q.89 In which of following silicate structure, the number of corner shared per tetrahedron is '2'.(1) Four membered cyclic silicate (2) Pyrosilicate

(3) Orthosilicate (4) 2D-Silicate

Q.90

OCN|||

CHCCHCH 33 ((( . K K K K / K !

)ii(

OH / H)i( 2 P

(1) P gives +ve iodoform test & ve test with Fehling solution.(2) P gives ve iodoform test & +ve test with NaHCO 3 solution.(3) P gives +ve Lucas test & ve test with NaHSO 3 solution(4) P gives +ve test with NaHSO 3 & cerric ammonium nitrate solution.

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