Law Feedback Paper 3

Aviation Law Feedback Paper 3 1. A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the

opposite direction to normal take-off. What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off?

(a) 2 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 1 minute (d) 5 minutes

2. At 1254 UTC an aircraft under radar vectoring under IFR is told by the

controller to turn onto a heading of 040° and away from the aircraft’s current flight planned track. At 1256 UTC the aircraft experiences a total communications failure. The aircraft should:

(a) Return to the fight planned track in the most direct manner (b) Return to the flight planned track with an intercept angle of not

greater than 10° (c) Return to the flight planned track with an intercept angle of not

greater than 15° (d) Return to the flight planned track with an intercept angle of not

greater than 20° 3. Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to

Unlawful Interference, to safeguard:

(a) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights (b) Passengers, crews and ground personnel of civil aviation flights. (c) Crews only for international fights. (d) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their

discretion, all of these for domestic flights. 4. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act

that would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft; the PiC may:

(a) request the crew to detain the passenger (b) ask the passenger to disembark (c) order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question (d) hand him/her over to the authorities

5. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

(a) country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier (b) country identifier followed by P/D/R (c) P/D/R followed by the identifier (d) country identifier followed by numbers

Bristol Groundschool Feedback Paper 3

6. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxying to the runway for take-off and sustains damage, is this:

(a) an incident (b) an accident (c) a serious incident (d) covered by normal operating procedures

7. When approaching an airfield on the glidepath using PAPI’s, how many

red lights should you see?

(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3

8. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar, by how much

will the aircraft be turned?

(a) 45° (b) 15° (c) 30° or more (d) a minimum of 25°

9. What does an ATSU consist of?

(a) An ACC and FIC (b) An ATCU and FIC (c) A combined radar unit and ATC tower (d) An ACC and Approach Control

10. To what distance from the edge of his/her area of responsibility may a

radar controller vector an aircraft?

(a) 5 nm (b) 3 nm (c) 5 km (d) 2.5 nm

11. A heavy aircraft is being followed by a light aircraft which is 1000 ft.

below. Both aircraft are under radar control, what should their minimum separation be?

(a) 3 nm (b) 5 nm (c) 6 nm (d) 4 nm


12. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft, the minimum separation is:

(a) 20 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) 15 minutes

13. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How

many of them are there?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6

14. The colour of the lights at the edge of a runway (except for those at the

caution area at the end of the runway) are:

(a) white (b) blue (c) green (d) green/yellow alternating

15. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the tower. What

does this mean?

(a) cleared to land (b) return for landing and await clearance to land (c) give way to other landing aircraft (d) land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and

proceed to the apron 16. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?

(a) DR (b) FAF (c) FAP (d) MAPt

17. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single,

double and treble lights on the extended centre-line of a runway?

(a) 150 metres (b) 200 metres (c) 250 metres (d) 300 metres


18. What is the tolerance for Mode ‘C’ when being checked by Air Traffic Control?

(a) ± 100 ft (b) ± 150 ft (c) ± 300 ft (d) ± 200 ft

19. Which of the following represent High Intensity obstacle lights?

(a) Flashing white (b) Steady red (c) Steady white (d) Flashing red

20. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has

been cleared to descend, when can the first aircraft start descending to that level?

(a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level (b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level (c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level (d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original

level 21. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft

to return inbound from outbound. This is called:

(a) The Base Turn (b) A Reverse Procedure (c) A Procedure Turn (d) A Racetrack

22. On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent

gradient in the final approach?

(a) 3° (b) 5% (c) 6.5% (d) 4.5°

23. Three aircraft are at the scene or an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but

cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2 arrives second and has good communications with ATC, Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft. Who assumes responsibility?

(a) No responsibility is assumed until aircraft 3 arrives (b) Aircraft 2 because he has good communications with ATC (c) Aircraft 2 until aircraft 3 arrives (d) Aircraft 1 until aircraft 2 arrives who then passes control to

aircraft 3.


24. Which section of the AIP contains information relating to areas and/or routes for which a meteorological information service is provided?

(a) ENR (b) AD (c) SUP (d) GEN

25. The criterion that determines the specific level occupied by an aircraft

(except that the appropriate ATC unit may specify a lesser criterion) is:

(a) ± 300 ft (b) ± 150 ft (c) ± 250 ft (d) ± 200 ft

26. Taxiway edge lights are:

(a) Green (b) Blue (c) Red (d) White

27. When flying under IFR you experience a total communications failure

in conditions of no cloud and unlimited visibility. What should you do?

(a) Proceed to destination under VFR (b) Descend to en-route minimum sector altitude and land at the

nearest suitable IFR aerodrome (c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC (d) Continue under IFR and follow the filed flight plan

28. If an aeroplane cannot squawk IDENT, which of the following is a valid

method by which ATC can identify an aeroplane that is squawking mode A codes?

(a) Switch SSR to on then standby (b) Switch SSR from on to off (c) Switch SSR on, then standby then off (d) Switch SSR to standby then on again

29. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052°M. You are flying

inbound to hold on a track of 232°M. What type of join should you make?

(a) Direct or parallel (b) Parallel or offset (c) Offset or reciprocal (d) Parallel


30. What is the deviation allowed either side of track, between sectors when joining a hold?

(a) 5° (b) 2.5° (c) 10° (d) 15°

31. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?

(a) When a height of 50m has been achieved and maintained (b) When established in the climb (c) At the missed approach point (d) When en-route either to the hold or departure

32. What is cabotage?

(a) Flying over territorial waters (b) Crop spraying (c) Routes flown by a national air carrier (d) Limitation of domestic air services to a national carrier of another

state 33. When flying at night you see a light signal for distress. What should the

aircraft commander do?

(a) Circle overhead (b) Overfly as low as possible (c) Flash the landing or navigation lights twice (d) Reply with the letter R in morse code

34. You are flying in a mountainous region and you see the letter X on the

ground. What does this mean?

(a) Medical assistance required (b) Mechanical assistance required (c) All have survived (d) All are injured

35. What type of turn is the turn from outbound to reciprocal inbound

during an instrument approach?

(a) A procedure turn (b) A reverse procedure turn (c) A racetrack (d) A base turn

36. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate

from it for some reason. What do you do?

(a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact (b) Tell ATC after the deviation (c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation (d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours


37. You are flying IFR in IMC and you suspect communications failure.

Which combination of the following actions would you take?

(i) Try to contact another aircraft for relay (ii) Try to make contact with ATC on another frequency (iii) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATC (iv) Continue the flight according to the flight plan

(a) All the above (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

38. On an instrument approach, when may the pilot descend below

minimum safety altitude?

(i) When terrain below the aeroplane and the destination aerodrome is in sight and likely to remain so

(ii) When under radar control (iii) When visual with the underlying terrain but not the aerodrome (iv) When commencing a published approach procedure

(a) all of the above (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

39. In which airspace can you be cleared to fly SVFR without a radio?

(a) E (b) D (c) E, D (d) C, D, E

40. The validity of a JAR-FCL instrument rating is:

(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 2 years (d) 5 years

41. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assumes a pilot localiser

accuracy of:

(a) ¼ scale (b) ½ scale (c) 1 scale (d) 1½ scale


42. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft above FL140 the max IAS is:

(a) 230 kt (b) 240 kt (c) 265 kt (d) 280 kt

43. The abbreviation OIS means:

(a) Obstacle in surface (b) Obstruction in surface (c) Obstruction identification surface (d) Obstacle identification surface

44. What is the name of a climb or descent manoeuvre in a holding pattern:

(a) Base turn (b) Shuttle (c) Procedure turn (d) Racetrack pattern

45. How close to the boundary of a radar vectoring area can an aircraft be

vectored?

(a) 2 nm (b) 2.5 nm (c) 5 nm (d) 3 nm

46. When can a controlled flight be given permission to climb/descend

maintaining own separation in VMC?

(a) When directed by ATC (b) When requested by the pilot and the Authority of the State

approves (c) When there is no conflicting traffic (d) When approved by the operator

47. Passenger A has passed through security and meets another passenger

(B) who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?

(a) Passenger A to pass through security again (b) Both to pass through security (c) Only B needs to pass through security (d) Both passengers and their cabin baggage to pass through security

48. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the

administration of Certificates of Airworthiness?

(a) The authority of the State of Operator (b) The authority of the State of Registration (c) The authority of the State being overflown (d) The Operator


49. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods

carried in aircraft?

(a) Annex 15 (b) Annex 16 (c) Annex 17 (d) Annex 18

50. What does the SAR ground signal “V” mean?

(a) We have gone south (b) We need assistance (c) We need medical assistance (d) Yes


Intentionally Blank


Aviation Law Feedback Paper 3, Answers A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44

45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C D

21 22

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40


Answers

1 a 11 c 21 c 31 b 41 b 2 b 12 c 22 c 32 d 42 d 3 b 13 b 23 d 33 c 43 d 4 d 14 a 24 d 34 a 44 b 5 a 15 b 25 a 35 a 45 b 6 a 16 c 26 b 36 c 46 b 7 b 17 d 27 c 37 c 47 d 8 c 18 c 28 d 38 c 48 b 9 b 19 a 29 b 39 a 49 d

10 d 20 a 30 a 40 b 50 b


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Law Feedback Paper 3