toate testele nerezolvate

8/4/2019 toate testele nerezolvate

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TEST 1

Question 1:

While in use, where are software applications stored?

A. RAM

B. ROMC. NIC

D. EPROM

Question 2:What is a network interface card (NIC)?A. a WAN adapter

B. a card used to make modem connections

C. a card used only for Ethernet networks

D. a printed circuit board that provides network

communication

Question 3:

What is NOT an important consideration when purchasing a

NIC?

A. the type of networkB. the type of applications

C. the type of media

D. the type of system bus

Question 4:

Which PC hardware upgrade must take place to change thePC's network

speed from 10Mbps to 100Mbps?

A. install a faster video card

B. install a faster hard driveC. install a faster serial port

D. install a faster NIC

Question 5:

What is the expansion slot on laptops commonly called?A. IEEE

B. PCMCIA

C. ITU-T

D. FDDI

Question 6:

Which Control Panel icon should be accessed to configureTCP/IP LAN

settings in a Windows 95 PC?

A. Device ManagerB. System

C. Network

D. Internet Options

Question 7:

What does a plug-in do?

A. allows one to view material saved in the HTML format

B. allows one to view GIF files

C. allows the browser to display proprietary file typesD. allows multiple versions of the browser to run at the

same time

Question 8:

All computers on a network can view academy curriculumvia a web browser except one. Locally, this computer

operates well. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. PC CPU speed

B. PC Bus speed

C. Network speedD. Network Connection

Question 9:

Which component of a PC is a collection of wires through

which data istransferred from one part of the computer to another?

A. Expansion slot

B. Bus

C. Microprocessor

D. System unit

Question 10:

Which numbering system do computers use for data

processing?

A. binaryB. decimalC. hexadecimal

D. octal

Question 11:

What is NOT a WAN technology?A. Modem

B. Frame Relay

C. ISDN

D. Ethernet 10BaseT

Question 12:

What is the name of a device that has many transistors,

performs a specific task, and is made of semiconductor

material?

A. Integrated circuit

B. LEDC. Capacitor

D. Resistor

Question 13:What is located within a single building or campus?

A. LAN

B. WAN

C. TAN

D. MAN

Question 14:

What is the decimal value of the binary number 11111111?

A. 0

B. 64C. 192

D. 255Question 15:

What is a WAN?

A. a network that connects users across a large geographicarea

B. a network that connects devices in a workgroup setting

C. a network that connects business departments in a

buildingD. a technique that was an early solution to the networking

problem

Question 16:

What is the definition of a bit?A. the section of a network that is bounded by bridges,

routers, or

switches

B. a binary digit used in the binary number system, either 0

or 1C. the interface on an internetworking device, such as a

router

D. the network areas within which data packets that have

collided are

propagated

Question 17:

How many bits are in a byte?

A. 2

B. 4C. 8


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D. 10

Question 18:

Which describes the decimal numbering system?

A. It is also called the Base 100 Number System.B. It uses the 10 symbols 0 - 9.

C. It is based on powers of 1.

D. It is the same as the ASCII numbering system.

Question 19:Which numbering system is based on powers of 2?

A. octal

B. hexadecimal

C. binary

D. ASCII

Question 20:

What is the decimal number 151 in binary?

A. 10010110

B. 10010111C. 10101011

D. 10010011

Question 21:

What is the binary number 11011010 in decimal?

A. 218B. 202

C. 222

D. 186

Question 22:

How is bandwidth described?

A. bytes per second

B. bits per second

C. megabits per millisecondD. centimeters

Question 23:

What is the term to describe the maximum number of bits

that can betransferred in a given amount of time?

A. impedance

B. propagation

C. attenuation

D. bandwidth

Question 24:

Which factor reduces throughput?

A. increased number of usersB. decreased number of users

C. increased size of hard drive

D. decreased size of hard drive

TEST2Question 1:

Which correctly describes a source address?

A. the address of a host that receives data and information

from other computers in a network

B. the address of a host that sends data and information toother

computers in a network

C. data information that moves between computers in a

network

D. it provides a connection between computers in a network

Question 2:

Which best defines media in terms of networking?

A. material through which data packets travel

B. encapsulation of encoded information

C. production model for assembling complex electronic

devices

D. activation and maintenance of data links between

systems

Question 3:

A set of rules that determines the format and transmission of

data is known as what?

A. standardB. modelC. representation

D. protocol

Question 4:

Which is an advantage of a layered network model?A. slows evolution

B. increases complexity

C. simplifies learning

D. increases proprietary protocols

Question 5:

Which process does the OSI model describe?

A. how to protect networks from unwanted intrusions such

as hackers and viruses

B. how a network uses transmission devices provided by

common carriers to create a steady and reproducible signalC. how information or data moves from one computer

through a network

to another computer

D. how to maintain physical and software links betweennetworks

Question 6:

What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI model?

A. physical, data link, network, transport, session,presentation, application

B. physical, session, data link, network, application,

transport, presentation

C. physical, data link, network, session, transport,

presentation, applicationD. physical, data link, network, session, application,

transport, presentation

Question 7:

What is layer 3 of the OSI model called?A. network

B. session

C. data link

D. application

Question 8:

Which best describes the function of the physical layer?

A. Defines the electrical and functional specifications for

the link between end systems.B. Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.

C. Provides connectivity and path selection between two

end systems.

D. Concerned with physical addressing, network topology

and mediaaccess.

Question 9:

Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path

selectionbetween two end systems where routing occurs?

A. physical layer

B. data link layer

C. network layer

D. transport layer


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Question 10:

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable

network

communication between end nodes and provides mechanisms

for theestablishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual

circuits, transport fault detection and recovery, and

information flow control?

A. physical layerB. data link layerC. network layer

D. transport layer

Question 11:

What is the function of the session layer?A. concerned with data structures and the negotiation of

data transfer syntax

B. provides reliable transit of data across the physical layer

C. provides connectivity and path selection between two

end systemsD. manages data exchange between presentation layer

entities

Question 12:

Which best describes the function of the presentation layer?

A. responsible for reliable network communication betweenend nodes

B. concerned with data structures and negotiation data

transfer syntax

C. provides connectivity and path selection between twoend systems

D. manages data exchange between layer entities

Question 13:

Which layer of the OSI model describes the various types ofnetworking media?

A. network layer

B. data link layer

C. physical layer

D. transport layer

Question 14:

When encapsulating data, what is the control information that

is placed before

the data called?A. frame

B. header

C. capsule

D. routing information

Question 15:

What is one function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

A. Allows for physical addressing of computers on the

network media .B. Data transmission across the network media.

C. Defines the data as it crosses the network media.

D. Provides network services to applications.

Question 16:Packets are encapsulated into frames at which layer of the

OSI model?

A. data link

B. network

C. transportD. session

Question 17:

What is the order of the layers in the TCP/IP model?

A. network, internet, transport, applicationB. network, data link, transport, application

C. physical, data link, transport, application

D. internet, data link, transport, application

Question 18:

In the TCP/IP model, which layer would deal with reliability,flow control, and error correction?

A. transport

B. internet

C. networkD. application

Question 19:

At which layer of the TCP/IP model are FTP and HTTP

located?

A. applicationB. transport

C. internet

D. network

Question 20:Which is a characteristic of the TCP/IP model?

A. combines host and media layers

B. combines session and transport layers

C. combines data link and physical layers

D. combines network and data link layers

Question 21:

At which layer of the OSI model is telnet located?

A. transport

B. sessionC. presentation

D. application

TEST3Question 1:

What is a type of logical topology?

A. star

B. hierarchical

C. meshD. token passing

Question 2:

What is the purpose of a NIC?

A. establishes, manages, and terminates sessions betweenapplications

and manages data exchange between presentation layer

entities

B. provides the host's access to the mediumC. provides services to application processes

D. provides mechanisms for the establishment,

maintenance, and

termination of virtual circuits, recovery, and information flow

control

Question 3:

At which layer of the OSI model is the NIC located?

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 3C. Layer 4

D. Layer 5

Question 4:

Which layer of the OSI model describes networking media?A. network layer

B. data link layer

C. physical layer

D. transport layer

Question 5:


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Which material is used for network media?

A. switch

B. hub

C. router

D. fiber

Question 6:

What is the purpose of a repeater?

A. connects a LAN to a WANB. amplifies and retimes network signalsC. records web pages and repeats them for other users

D. relays time signals between network devices

Question 7:

At which OSI layer does a repeater function?A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question 8:

What is another name for a multi-port repeater?

A. bridge

B. host

C. hub

D. sequencer

Question 9:

A hub operates at which OSI layer?

A. 1B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Question 10:Which statement best describes bridges and the way they

make forwarding

decisions?

A. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use IP addresses to make

decisionsB. they operate at OSI Layer 3 and use IP addresses to make

decisions

C. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to

make

decisionsD. they operate at OSI Layer 3 and use MAC addresses to

make

decisions

Question 11:

What does a switch use to make data forwarding decisions?

A. IP address

B. MAC address

C. network addressD. subnetwork address

Question 12:

What is the primary purpose of a router?

A. to make packet forwarding decisions based on physicaladdresses

B. to make packet forwarding decisions based on logical

addresses

C. to make frame forwarding decisions based on physical

addressesD. to make frame forwarding decisions based on port

addresses

Question 13:

What are the most important traffic-regulating devices onlarge networks?

A. hubs

B. servers

C. routers

D. bridges

Question 14:

Because a cloud is not really a device, but a collection of

assumed

capabilities, which OSI layers are represented in a cloud?A. Layers 1-3B. Layers 1-4

C. Layers 4-7

D. Layers 1-7

Question 15:Routers operate primarily at what layer of the OSI model?

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 3

D. Layer 4

Question 16:

What is the correct order of encapsulation?

A. data, segment, packet, frame, bits

B. data, frame, packet, segment, bits

C. bits, data, packet, frameD. bits, frame, data, packet

Question 17:

What data units are associated with OSI Layer 1?A. bits

B. frames

C. packets

D. segments

Question 18:

Which is considered a layer 2 device?

A. hub

B. repeater

C. switchD. transceiver

Question 19:

What is the function of a transceiver?

A. extends the length of network segmentB. converts one media type to another

C. segments two LANS

D. increases the number of devices on a segment

Question 20:

Which could be considered a layer 1-7 device?

A. router

B. hub

C. switchD. computer

Question 21:

When creating a network from just two PCs, what kind of

cable would beused to directly connect them?

A. fiber optic cable

B. standard UTP cable

C. UTP rollover cable

D. UTP crossover cable

Question 22:

If 4 hosts are connected to a hub how many IP addresses are

required for these 5 devices?

A. oneB. two


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C. four

D. five

TEST4Question 1:

Which best describes an insulator?

A. Any material with a low resistance to electrical current.

B. Any material with a high resistance to electrical current.C. Any highly malleable metal.D. Any material that cannot transmit currents over 110

volts.

Question 2:

In electrical terms, what does AC mean?A. alternating current

B. attenuating current

C. amplitude current

D. amplified current

Question 3:

What is the best definition of electrical current?

A. force or pressure caused by the separation of electrons

and protons

B. the measurement of electron flow in an electrical circuit

C. the opposition to electron flow in a curcuitD. the absence of electron flow in a curcuit

Question 4:

What is the opposition to the movement of electrons as theymove through materials?

A. current

B. resistance

C. ohms

D. voltage

Question 5:

Where is the safety ground connected on a computer?

A. exposed metal parts

B. the monitorC. the mouse

D. the network connection

Question 6:

What is the best definition of voltage?A. force or pressure caused by the separation of electrons

and protons

B. the measurement of electron flow in an electrical circuit

C. the opposition to electron flow in a circuitD. the absence of electron flow in a circuit

Question 7:

What is the unit of measure for resistance?

A. voltB. ohm

C. amp

D. joule

Question 8:When measuring voltage with a multimeter which setting

must be set?

A. AC or DC

B. polarity

C. frequencyD. amperage range

Question 9:

What are the three required parts of an electrical circuit?

A. switch, source or battery, load or resistanceB. source or battery, complete path, switch

C. source or battery, complete path, load or resistance

D. power, source or battery, load or resistance

Question 10:

Which type of electrical circuit will have a continuouslyvarying

voltage-versus-time graph?

A. DC

B. analogC. digitalD. open

Question 11:

What is propagation of a network signal?

A. travelB. delay

C. attenuation

D. latency

Question 12:What is attenuation?

A. travel

B. delay

C. a signal losing strength to its surroundings

D. a signal gaining strength from its surroundings

Question 13:

What is the result of impedance mismatch?

A. reflected energy

B. power sagsC. brown outs

D. power surges

Question 14:

Which is an external source of electrical impulses that canattack the quality of electrical signals on a cable?

A. EMI caused by electrical motors

B. EMI caused by DC Batteries

C. impedance caused by radio systems

D. EMI caused by fiber optic cable

Question 15:

What is the primary cause of crosstalk?

A. cable wires that are too large in diameter

B. too much noise in a cable's data signalC. electrical motors and lighting

D. electrical noise from other wires in a cable

Question 16:Which describes cancellation in cabling?

A. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other's electrical

current flow.

B. Twisting of wire pairs provides self-shielding within the

network media.C. The magnetic fields from separate cables cancel

magnetic fields of another cables.

D. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network

cabling.

Question 17:

Which term best describes the delay of a network signal?

A. dispersion

B. jitter

C. latencyD. attenuation

Question 18:

Which term best describes two devices communicating on a

shared-mediumat the same time?


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A. latency

B. dispersion

C. collision

D. obstruction

Question 19:

How many bits compose 1 byte?

A. 2

B. 4C. 8D. 255

Question 20:

Which term describes the conversion of binary data into a

form that cantravel on a physical communications link?

A. encoding

B. decoding

C. encrypting

D. decrypting

Question 21:

What kind of schemes are Manchester and NRZ?

A. encoding

B. decoding

C. encryptingD. decrypting

Question 22:

What are the three parts of an atom?A. electron, neutron, positron

B. proton, nucleus, orbit

C. neutron, electron, proton

D. proton, nucleus, positron

Question 23:

Which of the following would represent a DC source of

electricity?

A. an electrical generator

B. a car or flashlight batteryC. a magnet

D. a steam engine

Question 24:

A multimeter can be used to measure which of the following?A. voltage, current, frequency

B. voltage, resistance, continuity

C. continuity, voltage, noise

D. noise, voltage, continuity

TEST5

Question 1:

What is the maximum cable length of unshielded twisted pair(UTP), in

meters?

A. 100

B. 185

C. 200D. 500

Question 2:

What is a feature of coaxial cable?

A. It contains four wire pairs in the center.B. It uses a plastic woven braid.

C. It contains a copper conductor at the center.

D. It relies on cancellation effects to reduce the amount of

interference.

Question 3:

What is an advantage of coaxial cable?

A. It can run unrepeated farther than twisted-pair cabling.

B. It is less expensive than any other type of cabling.

C. It is easier to install than UTP.

D. It is more susceptible to noise than UTP.

Question 4:

What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling in

networks?A. cheapB. easy to install

C. not susceptible to electromagnetic interference

D. it is available either with or without an outer shield

Question 5:What is a feature of fiber-optic cable?

A. It is capable of higher data rates than other types of

networking

media.

B. Its core is made of highly reflective Kevlar.C. It relies on total internal cancellation to guide light for

tremendous distances.

D. It uses an intense incandescent light.

Question 6:

What kind of cable is most frequently recommended andimplemented in

installations today?

A. category 3

B. category 4C. category 5

D. coaxial cable

Question 7:

Which element of the TIA/EIA standard allows for thegreatest cable length?

A. patch cords

B. work area cable

C. horizontal cabling

D. diagonal cabling

Question 8:

What is the standard 10Base-T termination for the

telecommunications

outlet?A. UTP 55

B. RJ-45

C. EIA 45

D. TIA 74

Question 9:

What does the twisting of the wires do in a CAT-5 cable?

A. makes it thinner

B. makes it less expensiveC. limits signal degradation

D. allow 6 pairs to fit in the space of 4 pairs

Question 10:

What is true about RJ-45 connectors?A. have eight conductors

B. have four conductors

C. have one center conductor

D. They are a layer 2 component.

Question 11:

Which is true about patch panels?

A. have RJ77 jacks on one side

B. have a punch down block on one side

C. cannot be rack mountedD. require a power supply


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Question 12:

What is one purpose of a repeater?

A. filters network traffic

B. increases traffic on a networkC. decreases data transmission rates

D. extends the physical length of a network segment

Question 13:What is the networking term used for a device that is thecenter of a star topology network?

A. bridge

B. port

C. hub

D. filter

Question 14:

What happens to data packets during a collision?

A. The packet is resent by the multiport hub.

B. The packet is converted to analog and retransmitted.C. It will be destroyed, bit by bit.

D. It will be rebuilt by destination device.

Question 15:

Which is a characteristic of a collision domain?

A. all computers on a single shared access mediaB. all computers sharing a single IP address

C. all computers sharing a single MAC address

D. all computers within a WAN

Question 16:

How many collision domains exist in a network containing

two repeaters?

A. one

B. twoC. three

D. five

Question 17:

How many collision domains exist in a network containingtwo hubs?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. five

Question 18:

How many collision domains exist in a network containing

one repeater AND one hub?A. one

B. two

C. three

D. five

Question 19:

What is the term used for separating collision domains with

bridges, switches, and routers?

A. switching domains

B. extending domainsC. segmentation

D. fragmentation

Question 20:

Which best describes bus topology?A. all of its nodes connected directly to a central point (like

a hub)

B. all of its nodes connected directly to one physical link

C. all nodes connected to each other (fully meshed)

D. all nodes connected to exactly 2 other nodes

Question 21:

What are disadvantages of using a star topology?

A. hard to setup, install, and maintain the network

B. difficult to diagnose problems that occur in the network

C. needs lots of network media and the network would besusceptible to problems at central node

D. inability to modify the design of the network once it has

been set up

Question 22:Which of the following best describes a star topology?

A. transmission across a single coaxial cable

B. a trunk node which branches to other nodes

C. every node is linked to all other nodes

D. central node with all links to other nodes radiating fromit

Question 23:

Which best describes an extended star topology?

A. LAN topology in which each of the end nodes of the coretopology

are acting as the center of its own star topology

B. LAN topology in which transmissions from network

stations

propagate the length of a single coaxial cable and are

received by all other stationsC. LAN topology in which end points on a network are

connected to a

common central switch by point-to-point links

D. LAN topology where central points on a network areconnected to a

common central switch by linear links

Question 24:

What is a characteristic of a complete (mesh) topology.A. Every node is linked directly to the same hub.

B. Every node is linked directly to a switch.

C. Every node is linked directly to each other.

D. All nodes share a single wire (or cable).

TEST6

Question 1:

What section of the frame contains the source and destination

information?A. data field

B. FCS

C. address field

D. stop frame field

Question 2:

Which organization's LAN standards include 802.3 and

802.5?

A. EIA.B. IEEE.

C. TIA.

D. UL.

Question 3:What section of the frame contains the information you want

to send?

A. data field

B. FCS

C. address fieldD. stop frame field

Question 4:

What section of the frame handles error checking?

A. data fieldB. FCS


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C. address field

D. stop frame field

Question 5:

How did the IEEE standard differ from the OSI model?A. They defined their own layer 1 protocol.

B. They split layer 2 into two sublayers.

C. They split layer 3 into two protocols.

D. They combined layers 1 and 2.

Question 6:

Why did the IEEE create LLC?

A. to allow part of the datalink layer to be independent of

existing

technologiesB. to replace an older IBM protocol

C. to create a protocol that would not be controlled by the

US

government

D. to allow for data encryption before transmission

Question 7:

Convert the decimal number 43 to Hex.

A. 2B

B. 1F

C. EFD. 1A

Question 8:

Hexadecimal is used to represent what kind of addresses?A. IP

B. MAC

C. Octal

D. Digital

Question 9:

What is 16 raised to the first power (16 1 )?

A. decimal 1

B. decimal 16

C. hex FFD. hex 16

Question 10:

Convert the decimal number 2989 to Hex.

A. FDD1B. BAD

C. ED

D. CAD

Question 11:

What is the decimal value of the hex number ABE?

A. 2750

B. 5027

C. 2570D. 7250

Question 12:

What is the hex value of the binary number 11100010?

A. D2B. E2

C. G2

D. H20

Question 13:What is the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI)?

A. all hex digits of a MAC address

B. the 1st 6 hex digits of a MAC address

C. the last 6 hex digits of a MAC address

D. the prefix to all network device model numbers

Question 14:

Which best describes a MAC address?

A. a 48 bit address consisting of 24 bits for OUI and 24 bits

for vendor

B. a 32-bit address that consists of a etwork number, anoptional

subnetwork number, and a host number

C. a 48 bit address that is administered by InterNIC

D. a set of four numbers that use a hierarchical addressingscheme

Question 15:

Which OSI layer handles MAC addresses?

A. 4

B. 3C. 2

D. 1

Question 16:

What is a function of a MAC address?A. provides a unique identity

B. provides a hierarchical addressing scheme

C. provides a collision free domain

D. provides increased network stability

Question 17:What is the term used to describe the result of the layer 2

encapsulation process?

A. frame

B. segmentC. packet

D. data

Question 18:

What are the sections of a frame called?A. fields

B. sublayers

C. limiters

D. FPS

Question 19:

Define media access control.

A. Protocols that determine which computer on a shared-

medium

environment are allowed to act as management stations.B. Protocols that determine which computer on a shared-

medium

environment are allowed to receive management frames.

C. Protocols that determine which computer on a shared-medium environment are allowed to receive broadcasts.

D. Protocols that determine which computer on a shared-

medium

environment are allowed to transmit data.

Question 20:

What is true of a deterministic MAC protocol?

A. It defines collisions and specifies what to do about them.

B. It allows the hub to determine the number of users active

at any one time.C. It allows hosts to "take their turn" for sending data.

D. It allows the use of a "talking stick" by network

administrators to control the media access of any users

considered "troublemakers".

Question 21:

Which protocol uses deterministic media access?

A. Ethernet

B. Token Ring

C. ATMD. Frame Relay


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TEST7

Question 1:

What are two types of token ring frames?

A. BPU and ACKB. 802.2 and 802.5

C. data/command and token

D. NCP and LCP

Question 2:What are two token-ring frame fields, within the Access

Control Byte, that control priority?

A. reservation field and priority field

B. relay field and priority field

C. remote field and control fieldD. restriction field and placement field

Question 3:

How does a token-ring topology differ from an Ethernet

topology?A. Token-ring is deterministic.

B. Token-ring networks have increased collisions.

C. Token-ring uses 802.3 and Ethernet uses 802.5.

D. Token-ring operates at 10 Mbps and Ethernet at 16

Mbps.

Question 4:

Which of the 4 FDDI specifications defines how the medium

is accessed?

A. Media Access Control (MAC)B. Physical Layer Protocol (PHY)

C. Physical Layer Medium (PMD)

D. Station Management (SMT)

Question 5:FDDI and token-ring share which of the following features?

A. operate at the same speed

B. use a ring topology

C. use CSMA/CD

D. use of dual rings

Question 6:

Which fiber mode characteristic is recommended for inter-

building

connectivity?A. single-mode

B. multi-mode

C. intra-mode

D. inter-mode

Question 7:

What is the most widely used local area network (LAN)

technology?

A. Token RingB. Ethernet

C. ArcNet

D. FDDI

Question 8:What private company created Ethernet?

A. Apple

B. IBM

C. Xerox

D. Cisco

Question 9:

What is the relationship between an Ethernet version 2

header and the header of an 802.3 frame?

A. The Ethernet version 2 header is much longer than theheader of an

802.3 frame.

B. The Ethernet version 2 header is much shorter than the

header of an 802.3 frame.

C. The two headers are the same length as each other.

D. The two headers are completely different from eachother.

Question 10:

Which LAN technology uses CSMA/CD?A. EthernetB. Token Ring

C. FDDI

D. All of the above.

Question 11:Why is Ethernet known as a best-effort delivery system?

A. If a destination device detects any errors, then the data

packet is discarded and the sender notified.

B. The destination device notifies the source only if it

receives all of the data.C. The destination only notifies the source if the data was

corrupted.

D. If the destination must discard the data, then it does not

notify the source.

Question 12:What is true of 10BaseT signals?

A. They use Manchester encoding.

B. They combine both clock and data information into a

self-synchronizing stream of signals.C. They are designed to send and receive signals over a

segment that

consists of 4 wires.

D. All of the above are true.

Question 13:

What can be done if the area of the LAN is more than 200

meters in

diameter?

A. a repeater could be installed to extend the networkB. another server could be used to extend the network

C. special NICs can be purchased to extend the network

D. all of the above

Question 14:What device builds a MAC address table?

A. passive hub

B. bridge

C. active hubD. transceiver

Question 15:

On a LAN, what part of a host connects to the media?

A. media interface portB. serial port

C. MAC card

D. NIC card

Question 16:Which of the following is true concerning bridges?

A. They forward all data packets to other segments of the

network.

B. They can restrict unauthorized access to files by reading

the filename from the header.C. They forward packets based on IP addresses.

D. They can improve network performance.

Question 17:

Which of the following best describes a broadcast storm?A. A frame that will be sent to one node on a network


10/19

B. When too many broadcasts are sent out over the network

C. A section of a network that is bounded by bridges,

routers, or

switches

D. The network areas within which frames that havecollided are

propagated

Question 18:Which device can significantly reduce collisions?A. hub

B. NIC

C. switch

D. transceiver

Question 19:

What is the process of each port of a switch being its own

small bridge?

A. macrosegmentation

B. microsegmentationC. port-centric

D. none of the above

Question 20:

Which of the following statements are true of routers?

A. They are passive.B. They operate only at the data link layer.

C. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 2 addresses.

D. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 3 protocol

addresses.

Question 21:

Which best describes a network segment?

A. section of a network containing a predetermined number

ofaddressable services

B. section of a network that is a logical grouping based on

MAC

addresses

C. section of a network that contains Token Ring topologyD. section of a network bounded by routers, switches, or

bridges

TEST8

Question 1:When starting to design a network, what should be the first

step in the

process?

A. collecting information about the organizationB. gathering information about the network devices and

media that will be used

C. documenting costs and developing a budget for

implementation

D. identifying the resources and constraints of theorganization

Question 2:

If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and

each floor is 1500 square meters, how many wiring closetsshould be installed according to EIA/TIA 569?

A. one

B. three

C. six

D. nine

Question 3:

What kind of floor should the wiring room have?

A. tile or other finished surface

B. carpetC. unfinished stone

D. electronics grade carpet

Question 4:

Why should fluorescent light fixtures be avoided in wiring

closets?A. They provide false color lighting which can lead to

mistakes in making connections.

B. They generate outside interference.

C. They can degrade some plastic materials used in networkequipment.D. There often is insufficient room in a wiring closet to

change out the fluorescent bulbs easily and safely.

Question 5:

What best describes a wiring closet specification?A. No horizontal cabling coming from work areas should be

run under a

raised floor.

B. All cable leaving the room to intermediate distribution

facilities and computer and communications rooms locatedon other floors of a building should be via 8 cm (or smaller)

conduits or sleeved cores.

C. Any wall or ceiling openings provided for conduits or

sleeved cores must be sealed with smoke and flame retardant

materials.

D. The room should be equipped with a single stagesprinkler system.

Question 6:

What is considered when selecting a potential location for awiring closet?

A. identify secure locations close to the POP.

B. determine the exact number of cable runs needed for the

network.

C. determine the location of the building's file servers andprinters.

D. make an initial selection of potential locations based on

EIA/TIA-568B specifications.

Question 7:What network device is used in an extended star topology

when the

catchment area of one wiring closet is not enough?

A. repeater

B. backoffC. terminator

D. suppressor

Question 8:What is the first step in locating a wiring closet for a

network?

A. Identify the number of computers that will be part of the

network.

B. Identify the number of printers and file servers that willbe part of the network.

C. Identify on a floor plan, all devices that will be connected

to the network.

D. Identify the topological requirements of devices that will

be in the network.

Question 9:

Which type of networking media is now installed most often

for backbone

cabling?A. 100 ohm unshielded twisted pair cable

B. 150 ohm shielded twisted pair cable

C. 62.5/125 micron fiber-optic cable

D. 50 ohm coaxial cable

Question 10:


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Where should the main distribution facility (MDF) be located

in a multi-story building using an extended star topology?

A. next to the POP

B. on the first floor

C. on one of the middle floorsD. in the basement

Question 11:

What best describes the difference between alternating anddirect current?A. DC helps computers to work more efficiently, whereas

AC can cause

noise.

B. AC flows at a constant value, whereas DC rises and falls.

C. DC shifts ions from pole to pole, whereas AC ions run inone

direction.

D. DC flows at a constant value, whereas AC rises and falls.

Question 12:How does AC line noise create problems?

A. by overflowing the logic gates

B. by adding unwanted voltage to the desired signals

C. by hindering the CPU in detecting signal waves

D. by intensifying the leading and trailing edges on signals

Question 13:

What best describes the problems caused by electrostatic

discharge (ESD)?

A. It erases power supplies, hard drives, and RAM.B. It destroys semiconductors and data.

C. It shoots alternating current through a computer.

D. It overwrites the BIOS chip.

Question 14:What is the purpose of the safety ground in a computer?

A. connects the hot wire to the chassis

B. prevents metal parts from discharging hazardous voltage

through the chassis

C. connects the neutral wire to the chassisD. prevents metal parts from becoming energized with a

hazardous

voltage

Question 15:In what types of situations will a safety ground connection

not be sufficient?

A. when the earth ground is attached to multiple floors of a

buildingB. when the earth grounds between two parts of a network

are identical

C. when the power plant sends an irregular surge of power

that defeats the earth ground

D. when ground wires in separate locations have slightlydifferent

potential

Question 16:

What happens if you touch two objects with differentpotential voltages?

A. nothing

B. you complete the circuit and get a shock

C. the computer receives a power surge

D. the computer may lose data

Question 17:

What is the "one-hand rule?"

A. Only touch electrical devices with one hand at a time to

preventelectricity from flowing through the body.

B. When setting up the network only use one bare hand--

always wear a

glove on at least one hand.

C. When using tools that are not insulated only use one

hand, hold ontoa ground with the other hand.

D. There is no such rule.

Question 18:What problem could be caused by a faulty ground wireconnection at an

outlet that is used by networking equipment?

A. Nothing, because IEEE standards separate LAN

networking media

from power connections.B. The networking media could allow the network to run at

higher

speeds.

C. The networking media would ground the signal

preventing it fromoperating normally.

D. There could be potentially fatal voltages between the

LAN's UTP

cabling and the chassis of a networking device.

Question 19:How can the creation of potentially dangerous circuits

between buildings be

avoided?

A. A voltage regulator, that will shut off the network if thevoltage gets

too high, should be installed at both buildings.

B. Fiber-optic cable should be used as the backbone of the

network.

C. Shielded twisted pair (STP) cable should be used as thebackbone of

the network.

D. New ground wires should be installed so that the energy

potentials

between the buildings will be the same.

Question 20:

How can UTP backbone cabling facilitate entry of lightning

into a building?

A. The insulation in the wire acts as a lightning rod andattracts the strike.

B. The copper provides a pathway for lightning to enter a

building.

C. It won't facilitate lightning strikes if the wire is fused atboth ends.

D. It does not facilitate lightning strikes unless the copper

has been

damaged.

Question 21:

In technical fields, such as engineering, the design process

includes which one

of the following?

A. IEEE engineersB. specifications development

C. problem solving matrix

D. Dartmouth cycle

Question 22:Why are common mode problems a hazard to you or your

computer?

A. They go directly to the computer chassis.

B. They go directly to the computer's CPU.

C. They short wires to the power supply.D. They fuse computer components.


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Question 23:

What is a common cause of oscillation often called

harmonics?

A. excessively long electrical wiring runsB. nearby lightning strikes

C. a power line that falls below 80% of the normal voltage

D. power company switching operations

Question 24:What kind of power disturbances can be caused by strikes?

A. oscillations

B. sags

C. surges

D. brownouts

Question 25:

How can the problem of electrical spikes be addressed?

A. grounding cables

B. surge suppressorsC. line voltage meter

D. uninterruptible power supplies

TEST9

Question 1:What kind of jack must be used for making a connection to a

Category 5

unshielded twisted pair cable in a horizontal cabling scheme?

A. RJ-45B. BNC

C. UTP 55

D. EIA 45

Question 2:How is an RJ-45 jack surface mounted?

A. with a punch tool

B. with Velcro

C. flush with the surface

D. adhesive backed or screw box

Question 3:

Why shouldn't you install a jack in the bottom five

centimeters of a wooden

baseboard?A. The bottom plate of the wall will prevent you from

pushing the box

into the baseboard.

B. Most floors have metal supports that produceelectromagnetic

interference when close to the jack.

C. Dust and dirt accumulate under it that can then get into

the connection

and affect network performance.D. It's so close to the floor, there isn't enough space for most

people to work and manipulate the wires.

Question 4:

What is the most important thing to do before you work inwalls, ceilings or attics?

A. Label the faceplate.

B. Measure out the cable.

C. Turn off power to the area.

D. Install the patch panel.

Question 5:

Why is the wiring sequence critical when RJ-45 jacks are

used at the

telecommunications outlet in a horizontal cabling scheme?A. For the network to function properly.

B. Improper wiring sequence will short out the connection.

C. You could get a nasty electrical shock.

D. The collision rate is adversely affected.

Question 6:What is a rough diagram that shows where the cable runs are

located called?

A. cut sheet

B. sketchC. cable planD. cabling route

Question 7:

When running cable from the wiring closet to wall jacks,

where is the cableitself labeled?

A. at each tie

B. at each end

C. at the jack end

D. at the panel end

Question 8:

What should be done when preparing to run cable?

A. Cut the cable before pulling it.

B. Unroll it before pulling it through the ceiling.

C. Label the boxes and cable.D. Take the cable out of the boxes.

Question 9:

What should be used to mount cable to a wall?A. tie wraps

B. electrical tape

C. staples

D. paperclips

Question 10:

What type of raceway should be used if it will be visible in

the room?

A. channel guide

B. decorativeC. ladder rack

D. gutter

Question 11:

When should cable not be routed in an existing raceway?A. if the raceway distance exceeds 100 feet

B. if the raceway material is partially metallic

C. if it already contains a power cable

D. if it contains a telephone line

Question 12:

All the items below are personal safety precautions before

you install cable except :

A. Wear long sleeves.B. Wear long pants.

C. Wear baggy clothes.

D. Check for power cables.

Question 13:What kind of a cable must you use when laying cable through

spaces where

air is circulated?

A. shielded

B. double coatedC. fire rated

D. unshielded

Question 14:

What is the central junction for the network cable?A. POP


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B. server

C. center point

D. wiring closet

Question 15:If you have one wiring closet and you want to add more,

what name is given

to additional wiring closets?

A. IDFsB. MDFsC. Extended Stars

D. POPs

Question 16:

Which best describes a patch panel's function?A. It serves as a temporary fix to network problems.

B. It acts as a router for temporary networks connecting the

various

devices often found at conventions and shows.

C. It acts as a switchboard where horizontal cabling fromworkstations

can be connected to other devices to form a LAN.

D. It allows the network administrator to test the entire

network cabling

from a single location.

Question 17:

How many pins are on each of the ports of a patch panel?

A. 4 pins

B. 8 pinsC. 11 pins

D. 45 pins

Question 18:

What tool would you use to attach CAT5 cable to a patchpanel?

A. 110 patch tool

B. cable terminator

C. punch tool

D. patch terminator

Question 19:

What is one advantage of using distribution racks for

mounting patch panels?

A. allows easy access to both the front and back of theequipment

B. provides neutral ground

C. inexpensive compared to brackets

D. requires minimal wall space

Question 20:

Why is establishing a baseline performance level for a

network important?

A. for fulfilling one of the requirements necessary for you toget your

network certification

B. for providing your client with proof of a successful

installation

C. for future periodic testing of the network and diagnosticsD. for obtaining a network registration and identification

number from

TIA/EIA and IEEE

Question 21:How does a cable tester (a TDR) measure distance?

A. The cable tester identifies signal degradation, indicating

the cable is longer than the acceptable maximum length.

B. It determines the time a signal takes to be reflected back

fromclosed-ended cable.

C. It times the signal sent towards and reflected back from

the end of an

open-ended cable.

D. It measures the ability of other devices on the network to

receive andsend signals through the cable.

Question 22:

Why are split pairs a problem for network installations?A. The wires are unshielded and easily lose synchronicity.B. The wires are part of different circuits so signals are not

protected

and cross-talk occurs.

C. The wires are part of different circuits and easily shorted

out bypower spikes.

D. It is difficult to detect split pairs which requires

performing a wire

map.

Question 23:

Which of the following describes a cable tester measurement

of signal

attenuation?

A. It measures the reduction in power of a signal received

from a signalinjector.

B. It measures the increase in power of a signal received

from a signal

injector.C. The signal injector attaches to the near end of the cable.

D. The frequency to be used for testing is specified in

EIA/TIA 568A.

Question 24:What is the first thing you should do if near-end crosstalk is

detected?

A. Redo all connections at the patch panel.

B. Isolate which connection is the cause by running a TDR

test.C. Redo all connections at the cross connects.

D. Visually check the horizontal cabling.

Question 25:

Which of the following is a source that can produceinterference on UTP

cable?

A. fluorescent lights

B. fiber-optic cablingC. bridges

D. coaxial cabling

TEST10

Question 1:Which of the following is a benefit of network segmentation?

A. reduced congestion

B. reduced equipment requirements

C. creation of more IP addresses

D. creation of more MAC addressesQuestion 2:

Which of the following correctly describes an ISP?

A. Internal Service Protection

B. Internal Service Provider

C. Internet Service ProviderD. Internet Service Protection

Question 3:

Which of the following describes the relationship between

path determinationand the routing of packets?


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A. performed only by switches

B. performed only by different devices

C. they are different processes

D. they are the same process

Question 4:

Which part of a network layer address does the router use

during path

determination?A. the host addressB. the router address

C. the server address

D. the network address

Question 5:Which type of addressing scheme is formed by MAC

addresses?

A. flat

B. circular

C. hierarchicalD. elliptical

Question 6:

Which OSI layer adds an IP header?

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 2C. Layer 3

D. Layer 4

Question 7:Which address(es) appear in an IP packet's header?

A. source address

B. destination address

C. source and destination addresses

D. there are no addresses in the IP packet header.

Question 8:

How many bits are in an IP address?

A. 4

B. 8C. 16

D. 32

Question 9:

What is specified by the network number in an IP address?A. the network to which the host belongs

B. the physical identity of the computer on the network

C. the node of the subnetwork which is being addressed

D. the broadcast identity of subnetwork

Question 10:

Which octet(s) are assigned locally in a class B address?

A. The first octet is assigned locally.

B. The second octet is assigned locally.C. The first and second octets are assigned locally.

D. The third and fourth octets are assigned locally.

Question 11:

Which of the following would be the largest possible numberexpressed by an

8 bit binary number?

A. 0

B. 11111111

C. 10101011D. 10101010

Question 12:

What is decimal number 164 in binary?

A. 10100100B. 10010010

C. 11000100

D. 10101010

Question 13:

Which of the following would be the decimal value of thebinary IP address

11001101.11111111.10101010.11001101?

A. 205.255.170.205

B. 109.255.170.109C. 205.127.200.205D. 109.127.200.109

Question 14:

Which of the following best describes the address

139.219.255.255 in anunsubnetted environment?

A. Class A broadcast address

B. Class B host address

C. Class B broadcast address

D. Class C host address

Question 15:

What characteristic must hosts on a network possess in order

to

communicate directly ?

A. same vendor codeB. same network ID

C. same MAC address

D. separate subnets

Question 16:

Which of the following assists devices on the same network

in determining a

packet's final destination?

A. source IP addressB. vendor number

C. host protocol

D. host ID

Question 17:Which of the following is an example of a Class C broadcast

address?

A. 190.12.253.255

B. 190.44.255.255

C. 221.218.253.255D. 129.219.145.255

Question 18:

Which of the following is the approximate number of hostssupported in a

Class B unsubnetted network?

A. 254

B. 2024

C. 65 thousandD. 16 million

Question 19:

What must be used to allow the rest of the Internet to see our

organization as a single network, but allow routing inside ournetwork?

A. partitions

B. autonomous systems

C. subnets

D. divisions

Question 20:

What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed

from the host

portion of a Class C network to create subnets?A. 2


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B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Question 21:Which of the following describes the effect of subnetting on

the amount of

broadcast traffic?

A. decreases it, because broadcasts are not forwardedoutside a subnetB. decreases it, because it will take less time for a host to

get broadcasts from the routers.

C. increases it, because the packets must be forwarded to all

subnets

D. increases it, because router's duplicate broadcasts

Question 22:

Which of the following represents the use of binary ones in a

subnet mask?

A. host bitsB. subnet bits

C. network bits

D. subnet and network bits

Question 23:

Which class of network addresses allows the borrowing of 15bits to create

subnets?

A. Class A

B. Class BC. Class C

D. No class of network allows the borrowing of 15 bits.

Question 24:

How large is the network/subnet portion of a Class B licensehaving a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0?

A. 18 bits

B. 19 bits

C. 20 bits

D. That is an invalid mask for a Class B network.

Question 25:

How many total subnets can be created if four bits are

borrowed from the

host field?A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 64

TEST11

Question 1:

Which is an example of a Layer 3 internetworking device

that passes datapackets between networks?

A. router

B. hub

C. bridge

D. switch

Question 2:

What do bridges and switches use to make data forwarding

decisions?

A. logical addressesB. physical addresses

C. network addresses

D. IP addresses

Question 3:

Which of the following contains a unique network number

that is used in

routing?

A. MAC address

B. physical addressC. IP address

D. NIC card

Question 4:Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses?A. DHCP

B. ARP

C. proxy ARP

D. IGRP

Question 5:

Which protocol can find the MAC address of a computer

given its IP

address?

A. RARPB. DHCP

C. ARP

D. Proxy RARP

Question 6:

When configuring a host computer, which of the followingdescribes the

router interface that connects to the same network segment?

A. default interface

B. default gatewayC. default port

D. default subnet

Question 7:

Which is a network layer protocol that can be routed?A. IP

B. ISP

C. NetBEUI

D. ARP

Question 8:

Which is an example of a routed protocol?

A. RIP

B. IPX/SPX

C. EIGRPD. OSPF

Question 9:

What is the most common protocol used to transfer routinginformation

between routers located on the same network?

A. OSPF

B. RIP

C. IGRPD. EIGRP

Question 10:

In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

A. The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.B. The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.

C. A connectionless connection is established with the

recipient before a

packet is sent.

Question 11:

B. a connection is established between the

sender and receiver

C. a connection is established with the sender's local router

D. the destination is not contacted before any actual data issent


16/19

Question 12:

Connection-oriented network processes are often referred to

as what?

A. packet switchedB. segment switched

C. circuit switched

D. network switched

Question 13:IP relies upon which OSI layer protocol to determine whether

packets have

been lost and request retransmission?

A. application

B. presentationC. session

D. transport

Question 14:

The IP address for a router interface should be part of what?A. the network attached to the interface

B. any network attached to the router

C. it does not matter

D. router interfaces never have IP addresses

Question 15:Router ARP tables hold information from which of the

following?

A. all Ethernet LANs

B. all networks connected to themC. all networks in the Internet

D. MAC addresses only

Question 16:

What is described when a router acts as a default gateway,allowing a device on one subnet to find the MAC address of

a host on another subnet?

A. proxy ARP

B. proxy RARP

C. RARPD. subnetting

Question 17:

When sending data to a host on a different network, the

source hostencapsulates data so that it contains what destination address

in the IP

header?

A. IP address of the routerB. MAC address of the router

C. MAC address of the destination device

D. IP address of the destination host

Question 18:What do routers use to exchange routing tables and share

route information?

A. routed protocols

B. transport protocols

C. routing protocolsD. UDP protocols

Question 19:

What happens if a data packet reaches a router that is

destined for a network with which that router is not directlyconnected?

A. The router forwards the packet to all other routers.

B. The router returns the packet to the source device with no

explanation.

C. The router forwards the packet to another router thatmost likely

contains information about the destination.

D. The router returns the packet to the source device with

the

explanation that the destination was unreachable.

Question 20:

Which of the following is an example of an IGP (Interior

Gateway Protocol)?

A. IPXB. SPXC. UDP

D. IGRP

Question 21:

Which type of routing protocol is RIP?A. distance vector

B. link state

C. hybrid

D. spanning tree

Question 22:

What are the two proprietary routing protocols developed by

Cisco?

A. RIP and OSPF

B. IGRP and EIGRP

C. IPX and SPXD. TCP and IP

Question 23:

What is the correct term for when routes are learnedautomatically?

A. static routing

B. automatic routing

C. enhanced routing

D. dynamic routing

Question 24:

Why is a static route the preferred method for reaching stub

networks?

A. static routing requires less overheadB. static routing requires more overhead on the network

C. this allows routers to adjust to changes in the network

D. the routes are learned automatically

Question 25:Which type of routing allows routers to adjust to changing

network

conditions?

A. staticB. dynamic

C. automatic

D. stub

Question 26:Which describes the changes made to a packet's IP

destination address, as

that packet is passed from router to router on it's way to the

destination host?

A. The destination IP address changes each hop, to be theaddress of

the next router.

B. The destination IP address changes anytime a router is

sending the

packet over a WAN.C. The destination IP address will always be the address of

the first

router.

D. The destination IP address never changes.


17/19

TEST12-14

Question 1:

Which layer of the OSI model has the primary duty of

regulating the flow of

information from source to destination reliably andaccurately?

A. presentation

B. session

C. transportD. network

Question 2:

Which of the following is a characteristic of TCP?

A. unreliable

B. connectionlessC. divides outgoing messages into segments

D. provides no software checking for segments

Question 3:

At which OSI layer does TCP operate?A. Layer 4

B. Layer 5

C. Layer 6

D. Layer 7

Question 4:Which of the following would describe Transmission Control

Protocol?

A. unreliable

B. connection-orientedC. connectionless

D. Layer 3

Question 5:

What type of communication is used when two messages cancross during a

conversation?

A. two-way simultaneous

B. two-way continuous

C. two-way alternateD. one-way alternate

Question 6:

In a TCP segment, which field defines the number of octets a

recipient iswilling to accept?

A. flag

B. checksum

C. windowD. HLEN

Question 7:

Which simple protocol exchanges datagrams, without

acknowledgements orguaranteed delivery?

A. TCP

B. ASP

C. TCP/IP

D. UDP

Question 8:

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the

compression of files?

A. transportB. session

C. presentation

D. application

Question 9:

Which ports are reserved by TCP and UDP for public

applications?

A. numbers from 255 to 1023

B. numbers below 255

C. numbers above 1023D. numbers from 0 to 1023

Question 10:

What is the correct term for the sequence that synchronizes aconnection at

both ends before any user data is exchanged?

A. closed connection

B. segment retransmission

C. three-way handshake

D. sliding windows

Question 11:

What type of communication avoids interrupts by taking

turns?

A. two-way simultaneousB. two-way symmetric

C. two-way alternate

D. one-way continuous

Question 12:

Which term refers to the amount of data that can betransmitted before

receiving an acknowledgement?

A. window size

B. closed connectionC. two way handshake

D. expectational acknowledgement

Question 13:

The session layer establishes, manages, and terminatessessions between

_____________.

A. networks

B. servers

C. applicationsD. media

Question 14:

What is it called when the session layer decides whether to

use two-waysimultaneous or two-way alternate communication?

A. expectational acknowledgement

B. dialogue separation

C. resynchronizationD. dialogue control

Question 15:

Which of the following would be an example of an important

Layer 5protocol?

A. OSPF

B. NFS

C. IGRP

D. FTP

Question 16:

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for presenting

data in a form that the receiving device can understand?

A. transportB. session

C. presentation

D. application

Question 17:


18/19

Which of the following is a main function of the presentation

layer?

A. dialogue control

B. managing applications

C. windowingD. data compression

Question 18:

What is the correct term for the orderly initiation,termination, and managing of communication?A. dialogue separation

B. dialogue control

C. segmentation

D. expectational acknowledgement

Question 19:

If one system uses EBCDIC and a second system uses

ASCII, which layer

provides the translation between the two different types of

code?A. Layer 6

B. Layer 5

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 3

Question 20:What is ASCII and EBCDIC used to format?

A. graphics

B. text

C. digitized musicD. video

Question 21:

What are two file formats used by the Internet applications to

display still images?A. WAV and HTML

B. PICT and MIDI

C. GIF and JPEG

D. MPEG and TIFF

Question 22:

What is the term used when sound files are downloaded

while they are

playing?

A. Musical Instrument Digital InterfaceB. EBCDIC

C. video streaming

D. streaming audio

Question 23:

Since TCP reassembles segments into complete messages,

what happens if a

sequence number is missing in the series?

A. The segment is dropped.B. The missing segment is re-transmitted.

C. All segments are retransmitted from the beginning.

D. Sequence numbers are never checked when using TCP.

Question 24:What file format acts as a set of directions that tell a web

browser how to

display and manage documents?

A. HTML

B. HTTPC. MIDI

D. JPEG

Question 25:

Which layer is responsible for data encryption?A. Layer 7

B. Layer 6

C. Layer 5

D. Layer 4

TEST15Question 1:

Which layer of the OSI model is closest to the user and

determines whether

sufficient resources exist for communication betweensystems?A. transport

B. session

C. presentation

D. application

Question 2:

Which of the following is a network application?

A. web browser / WWW

B. network director

C. Hypertext Markup LanguageD. ASCII

Question 3:

What enables data to be sent to a device that is not directly

connected to a computer?

A. TelnetB. network redirector

C. presentation managers

D. EBCDIC

Question 4:

What are most applications that work in a networked

environment classified

as?

A. file storage applicationsB. network redirector applications

C. client-server applications

D. dialogue control applications

Question 5:What type of server is used to translate a domain name into

the associated IP address?

A. FTP

B. DNS

C. TFTPD. DHCP

Question 6:

Which application layer protocol supports e-mail programs?A. SNMP

B. POP3

C. TFTP

D. Telnet

Question 7:

If you want to save a word processor file on a network server,

what network

protocol enables the word processing application to become a

networkclient?

A. redirector

B. file locator

C. StorFil

D. SNMP

Question 8:

What is the correct term for a string of characters and/or

numbers that

represents the numeric address of a group of computers at anInternet site?


19/19

A. domain name

B. Uniform Resource Locator

C. network redirector

D. Hypertext Markup Language

Question 9:

What device on a network manages domain names and

responds to requests

from clients to translate a domain name into the associated IPaddress?A. Hypertext Markup Language

B. domain name server

C. Uniform Resource Locator

D. network redirector

Question 10:

E-mail addresses consist of which two parts?

A. recipient's username and postoffice address

B. InterNIC name and postoffice address

C. server ID and router IDD. Electronic portfolio and IP address

Question 11:

For security, when message recipients click to get their e-

mail, they are

usually prompted for what?A. e-mail address

B. server IP

C. domain name

D. e-mail password

Question 12:

The Telnet application works mainly at which layers of the

OSI model?

A. application and presentationB. application, presentation, and session

C. presentation and session

D. presentation, session, and transport

Question 13:Which protocol is designed to download or upload files on

the Internet?

A. SNMP

B. Telnet

C. FTPD. HTTP

Question 14:

What is an example of an application that requires both aclient and server

component in order to function?

A. web browser

B. Microsoft Word

C. ASCIID. PICT

Question 15:

Which of the following best defines an object on a web page

that, whenclicked, transfers you to a new web page?

A. network redirector

B. hyperlink

C. web browser

D. ASCII

Question 16:

In the URL http://www.cisco.com, the "cisco.com" part

identifies what?

A. the domainB. the protocol to be used

C. the type of resource to contact

D. the folder

Question 17:

Which of the following is a protocol that works withcomputer operating

systems and network clients instead of specific application

programs?

A. extenderB. TCPC. redirector

D. Uniform Resource Locator

Question 18:

Which OSI layer does not provide support for any other OSIlayer?

A. application

B. session

C. network

D. physical

Question 19:

Which connection to the remote server will be maintained

only long enough to process the transaction?

A. an FTP connection

B. a telnet sessionC. downloading a web page

D. starting a computer

Question 20:Which connection is made to a server and maintained until

the user terminates the connection?

A. printing a file from a web page

B. an FTP connection

C. downloading a web pageD. processing a web transaction

Question 21:

Which of the following allows for routing that is based on

classes of address, rather than individual addresses?A. DNS address

B. MAC address

C. WINs address

D. IP address

Question 22:

What is the language used to create web pages?

A. HTTP

B. HTMLC. GIF

D. ASCII

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