TTaarrggeett :: JJEEEE ((MMaaiinn++AAddvvaanncceedd)) …emssvsodisha.com/Up_Files/Documents/JA_ Reso Fast _(E-H... · 2019-12-09 · IMMPPOORRTTAANNT TIIINNSSTTRRUUCCTIOONNSS

Academic Session: 2020-21

(Resonance Forward Admission & Scholarship Test for Admission in Yearlong Classroom Contact Programs-YCCPs)

TTaarrggeett :: JJEEEE ((MMaaiinn++AAddvvaanncceedd)) 22002222

COURSE NAME : VIKAAS CLASS : XI COURSE CODE : JA

DDuurraattiioonn:: 33 HHoouurrss || MMaaxx.. MMaarrkkss:: 330000

Note : Make sure that you have filled your Class-IX (Science + Mathematics) % , Mobile No., Medium of Study, Date of Birth, Category,

NTSE Level, Board of the School you have appeared from Class-X and Choice of Study Centre in Objective Response Sheet (ORS).

Name : _____________________________________ Application Form Number : __________________________________

Please read the next & last page of this booklet for the instructions. (Ñi;k funsZ'kksa ds fy;s bl iqfLrdk ds vxys o vfUre i"B dks i<+sA)

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DDAATTEE :: 2200--1100--22001199

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.resonance.ac.in/reso/results/jee-main-2014.aspx

IIMMPPOORRTTAANNTT IINNSSTTRRUUCCTTIIOONNSS // eeggÙÙooiiww..kk ZZ ffuunnss ZZ''kk

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This booklet is your Question Paper. ¼;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u&i=k gS½

2. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any form are not

allowed to be used. ¼[kkyh dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] y?kqx.kd lkj.kh] LykbM :y] dSYdqysVj] eksckby ;k vU; fdlh bySDVªWkfud midj.k

ds fdlh Hkh :i esa mi;ksx dh vuqefr ugha gS½

3. Write your Name & Application Form Number in the space provided in the first page of this booklet.

(izFke i`"B ds uhps fn;s x;s fjDr LFkku esa viuk uke o vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k vo'; Hkjsa½

4. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the blank space provided in the

question paper. ¼fujh{kd ds }kjk dksbZ jQ 'khV ugha nh tk;sxhA jQ dk;Z iz'u&i=k esa fn;s x;s [kkyh LFkku esa gh djuk gS½

5. No query related to question paper of any type is to be put to the invigilator.

¼fujh{kd ls iz'u&i=k ls lEcfU/kr fdlh izdkj dk dksbZ iz'u uk djsas½

INSTRUCTIONS FOR OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET (ORS) (vkWfIVdy fjLikal 'khV (ORS) Hkjus ds funsZ’'k)

Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.(Åijh ewy i`"B ds vuq:i cqycqyksa

(BUBBLES) dks i;kZIr ncko Mkydj dkyk djsaA)

The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination. (ewy i`"B

e'khu&tk¡p gS rFkk ;g ijh{kk ds lekiu ij fujh{kd ds }kjk ,d=k dj fy;k tk;sxkA)

Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. (vks-vkj-,l- dks gsj&Qsj@fod`fr u djsaA)

Write your name, Application form number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the

appropriate bubble under each digit of your roll number. (viuk uke] jksy ua- vkSj ijh{kk dsanz dk uke ewy i`"B esa fn,

x, [kkuksa esa dye ls Hkjsa vkSj vius gLRkk{kj djsaA buesa ls dksbZ Hkh tkudkjh dgha vkSj u fy[ksaA jksy uEcj ds gj vad ds

uhps vuq:i cqycqys dks dkyk djsaA)

Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS).

(iz'u&i=k gy djus ls igys] ORS&'khV esa fn;s x;s fjDr LFkkuksa esa iwNs x;s fooj.kksa dks Hkjsa½

Do not forget to mention your paper code and Application Form Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in

the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) / Answer Sheet. ¼ORS&'khV@mÙkj&iqfLrdk esa fn;s x;s fjDr LFkku esa vius iz'u&i=k dk

dksM o viuk vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k Li"V :i ls Hkjuk uk Hkwysa½

Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet. (Åijh ewy i`"B ds cqycqyksa dks dkys ckWy

ikbUV dye ls dkyk djsaA)

Darken the bubble COMPLETELY. (cqycqys dks iw.kZ :i ls dkyk djsaA)

Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer. (cqycqyksa dks rHkh dkyk djsa tc vkidk mÙkj fuf'pr gksA)

The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :

(cqycqyksa dks dkyk djus dk mi;qDr rjhdk ;gk¡ n'kkZ;k x;k gS % )

There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble. (dkys fd;s gq;s cqycqys dks feVkus dk dksbZ rjhdk ugha gSA)

The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened

bubbles are evaluated. (gj [k.M ds izkjEHk esa nh x;h vadu ;kstuk esa dkys fd;s x;s rFkk dkys u fd;s x;s cqycqyksa dks

ewY;kafdr djus dk rjhdk fn;k x;k gSA.)

Marks distribution of questions is as follows. ¼iz'ukas ds vadksa dk fooj.k fuEu izdkj ls gSA½

No. of

QuestionsCorrect Wrong Total

1 to 50PART-I

(Maths)

Single Choice Questions (SCQ)

(dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)50 3 0 150

51 to 65PART-II

(Physics)



66 to 80PART-III

(Chemistry)



81 to 100PART-IV

(Mental Ability)



S.No. Subject Nature of QuestionsMarks to be awarded

Zero marks ‘0’ If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). ('kwU; vad '0' ;fn dksbZ Hkh

fodYi ugha pquk x;k gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A)

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Space for Rough Work (dPps dk;Z ds fy, LFkku)

PART-I : (Hkkx-I)

SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 150)

[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 150)

This section contains FIFTY (50) questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct

Marking scheme : Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

bl [kaM esa ipkl (50) iz'u gSaA

izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA

vadu ;kstuk :

iw.kZ vad % +3 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k gSA

'kwU; vad % 0 vU; lHkh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esaA

1. If 2x = 3y = 6– z, then 1 1

x y z

is equal to :

;fn 2x = 3y = 6– z rc 1 1

x y z

gksxk :

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) – 1

2. What must be subtracted from 4x4 – 2x3 – 6x2 + x – 5 so that the result is exactly divisible by 2x2 + x – 2 ?

4x4 – 2x3 – 6x2 + x – 5 esa ls D;k ?kVk;k tk, fd 'ks"kQy 2x2 + x – 2 ls iw.kZ HkkT; gksa ?

(A) –3x – 5 (B) 3x + 5 (C) –3x + 5 (D) 3x – 5

3. Observe the graph carefully.

js[kkfp=k dks /;kuiwoZd nsf[k,&

The coordinates of L are :

fcUnq L ds funsZ'kkad gksxsa &

(A) (4, 3) (B) (–3, 4) (C) (–5, –4) (D) (3, –4)







4. In the given figure, CAB = 80o, ABC = 40o. The sum of DAB and ABD is equal to :

fn;s x;s fp=k esa] CAB = 80o, ABC = 40o gSA DAB vkSj ABD dk ;ksx cjkcj gksxk &

80º 40º

C

D

BA

(A) 80o (B) 100o (C) 120o (D) 140o

5. Ray OS stands on a line POQ. Ray OR and ray OT are angle bisectors of POS and SOQ,

respectively. If POS = x, find ROT.

fdj.k OS js[kk POQ ij [kM+h gSA fdj.k OR vkSj OT Øe'k% POS vkSj SOQ ds lef}Hkktd gSaA ;fn

POS = x gS] rks ROT Kkr dhft,A

(A) 60º (B) 80º (C) 90º (D) None of these

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

6. S is any point on side QR of a PQR. If PQ + QR + RP > k PS. Then value of k is :

PQR dh Hkqtk QR ij S dksbZ fcanq fLFkr gSA ;fn PQ + QR + RP > k PS gSA rks k dk eku gS &

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

buesa ls dksbZ ugh

7. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Find its longest altitude.

(A) 24 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 5 cm (D) Nonea

;fn fdlh f=kHkqt ftldh Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ Øe'k% 5 cm, 12 cm rFkk 13 cm gS] rks lcls cM+s yEc dh yEckbZ gksxh &

(A) 24 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 5 cm (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

8. In a school 7

2 of the students are boys. If there are 610 girls, find the number of boys in the school ?

,d fo|ky; esa dqy fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa ls 7

2 Hkkx yM+ds gSaA ;fn 610 yM+fd;k¡ gks rks fo|ky; esa dqy yM+ds fdrus gSa ?

(A) 224 (B) 244 (C) 264 (D) 254

9. The diagonals AC and BD of a parallelogram ABCD intersect each other at the point O. If DAC = 32º

and AOB = 70º, then DBC is equal to

lekarj prqHkqZt ABCD ds fod.kZ AC vkSj BD ijLij fcanq O ij izfrPNsn djrs gSaA ;fn DAC = 32º vkSj

AOB = 70º gSa rks ∠DBC cjkcj gS

(A) 24º (B) 86º (C) 38º (D) 32º







10. ABCD is a trapezium with parallel sides AB = a cm and DC = b cm. E and F are the mid-points of the

non-parallel sides. The ratio of ar (ABFE) and ar (EFCD) is :

ABCD ,d leyac prqHkqZt gS ftldh lekarj Hkqtk,¡ AB = a cm vkSj DC = b cm gSA E vkSj F vlekarj Hkqtkvksa ds

eè;&fcanq gSaA rks ar (ABFE) vkSj ar (EFCD) dk vuqikr gSa &

a (A) a : b (B) (3a + b) : (a + 3b) (C) (a + 3b) : (3a + b) (D) (2a + b) : (3a + b)

11. In the given figure, chords AB and CD subtend equal angles each = 70° at the centre O of the circle.

OL AB and AL = 2.5 cm then CD is

uhps fn;s x;s fp=k esa o`r ftldk dsUnz O gS ls leku dks.k 70º ij ftok,sa AB rFkk CD [khaph tkrh gSA tgk¡

OL AB rFkk AL = 2.5 cm rks CD dh yEckbZ gS &

A

2.5

cm

B D

C

70º O

L

(A) 2 cm (B) 2.5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 7.5 cm

12. 4

3

4

5

2

1

3

1

3

2

3

4

3

1

39.03.0

= ?

(A) 2 (B) 2.7 (C) 27.7 (D) 0.27

13. The curved surface area of a cylinder of length 14 meters is 220 m2. The volume of the cylinder will be :

,d csyu ftldh yEckbZ 14 ehVj] ftlds oØkdkj Hkkx dk i`"Bh; {ks=kQy 220 m2 gS] rks csyu dk vk;ru gksxk –

(A) 290 m3 (B) 285 m3 (C) 270 m3 (D) 275 m3

14. The mean of five numbers is 30. If one number is excluded, their mean becomes 28. Then find the excluded number is :

ik¡p la[;kvksa dk ek/; 30 gSA ;fn ,d la[;k dks fudky fn;k tk, rks ek/; 28 cu tkrk gS] fudkyh xbZ la[;k gS %

(A) 28 (B) 38 (C) 35 (D) 35.5

15. What is the probability that square of a natural number from 1 to 70 ends with “1” ?

1 ls 70 rd dh izkd`r la[;kvks ds oxksZ dk bdkbZ vad “1” gksus dh D;k izkf;drk gksxh &

(A) 20

70 (B)

14

70 (C)

1

70 (D)

21

70







16. Find the value of 56.08148 14.

56.08148 14 dk eku Kkr dhft,A

(A) 4407

5863 (B) 4

407

6993 (C) 5

107

6857 (D) None of these

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

17. The degree of the algebraic expression 4y2 – 3y + 15x2y is :

fn, x;s chtxf.krh; dFku 4y4 – 5y2x + 15x2y3 dh dksfV D;k gksxh &

(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5

18. The point (4, – 6) belongs to (A) first quadrant (B) second quadrant (C) third quadrant (D) fourth quadrant

fcUnq (4, – 6) fuEu esa ls lEcfU/kr gS &

(A) izFke prqFkk±'k (B) f}rh; prqFkk±'k (C) r`rh; prqFkk±'k (D) prqFkZ prqFkk±'k

19. If x51 + x26 + x10 + 51 is divided by (x + 1) the remainder is :

;fn x51 + x26 + x10 + 51 dks (x + 1) ls foHkkftr fd;k tk,] rc 'ks"kQy gksxkA

(A) 50 (B) 48 (C) 49 (D) 52

20. In the figure, AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FG = GA, then DAE is equal to :

fn, x, fp=k esa, AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FG = GA, rc DAE cjkcj gksxkA

A B

C

G

F D

E

(A) 24° (B) 25° (C) 27° (D) 180º

7

21. P is point on side BC of ABC such that AP bisects BAC. Then :

P,f=kHkqt ABC dh Hkqtk BC ij dksbZ fcUnq bl izdkj gS fd AP, BAC dks lef}Hkkftr djrk gS rc

(A) BP = CP (B) BA = BP (C) BP > BA (D) CP < CA

22. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of the equal side to its base is 3 : 2. Find the area of the triangle

,d lef}ckgq f=kHkqt dk ifjeki 32 lseh gSA ;fn fdlh ,d leku Hkqtk dk vk/kkj ls vuqikr 3 : 2 gS rc f=kHkqt dk

{kS=kQy Kkr dhft,A

(A) 8 2 cm2 (B) 32 2 cm2 (C) 32 cm2 (D) 16 2 cm2

23. The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 is a line which meets the x-axis at which point ?

jsf[kd lehdj.k 2x + 3y = 6 dk xzkQ x-v{k dks fdl fcUnq ij feysxk \

(A) (–3, 0) (B) (0, 3) (C) (0, 2) (D) (3, 0)

24. If an angle of a parallelogram is two-third the adjacent angles, Then find both angles of a parallelogram.

,d lekUrj prqHkqZt dk ,d dks.k] vius vklUu dks.k dk nks&frgkbZ gSA rc lekarj prHkqZt ds nksuksa dks.k Kkr

dhft,A

(A) 60°, 120° (B) 36°, 144° (C) 72°, 108° (D) None of these

buesa ls dksbZ ugha







25. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, DC = 30 cm and AB = 50 cm. If X and Y are, respectively the mid-points of AD and BC, if ar (DCYX) = k ar (XYBA), then value of k is :

ABCD ,d leyac prqHkqZt gS] ftlesa AB || DC, DC = 30 cm vkSj AB = 50 cm gSA ;fn X vkSj Y Øe'k% AD vkSj

BC ds eè;&fcanq gSa] vkSj ar (DCYX) = k ar (XYBA), rc k dk eku gS &

(A) 9

8 (B)

7

5 (C)

9

7 (D)

5

3

26. In the given figure, if C is the centre of the circle and PQC = 25o and PRC = 15o, then QCR is equal to :

fn;s x;s fp=k esa] ;fn C o`r dk dsUnz gks rFkk PQC = 25° rFkk PRC = 15° gks rc QCR cjkcj gksxk % P

Q R

C25º 15º

(A) 40o (B) 60o (C) 80o (D) 120o

27. Which one of the following is a true statement ? (A) The difference of two natural numbers is always a natural number. (B) The difference of two integers is always an integer. (C) The quotient of two rational numbers is always rational. (D) None of these

fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lR; gS \

(A) nks izkd`r la[;kvksa dk vUrj ges'kk ,d izkd`r la[;k gksxhA

(B) nks iw.kk±dks dk vUrj ges'kk ,d iw.kk±d gksxkA

(C) nks ifjes; la[;kvksa dk HkkxQy ges'kk ,d ifjes; la[;k gksxhA

(D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

28. Find the total surface area of a cone whose radius is r

2 and slant height is 2

,d ‘'kadq ftldh f=kT;k r

2 vkSj fr;Zd Å¡pkbZ 2gS] dk dqy i``”"”Bh; {ks=kQy Kkr dhft,A

(A) 2 r ( + r) (B) r (+r

4) (C) r ( + r) (D) 2 r

29. The mean of n numbers x1, x2, x3 ,...., xn is M. If x1 is replaced by x' then, the new mean is :

n la[;kvksa x1, x2, x3 ,........., xn dk ek/; M gSA ;fn x1 dks x' ls izfrLFkkfir dj fn;k tk;s rks u;k ek/; gksxk :

(A) M – x1 + x' (B) (n 1)M x'

n

(C) 1nM x x '

n

(D) 1M x x'

n

30. When two dice are thrown, the probability of getting a number always greater than 4 on the seconds dice is :

tc 2 iklksa dks ,d lkFk Qsdk tkrk gS] rc nwljs ikls ij ges'kk vad 4 ls T;knk vkus dh D;k izzkf;drk gksxh &

(A) 6

1 (B)

3

1 (C)

36

1 (D) None dksbZ ugha







31. k4 4 2 2 2 26 3m n m n m n mn , then find the value of k.

k4 4 2 2 2 26 3m n m n m n mn , rc k dk eku Kkr dhft,A

(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

32. The remainder obtained when t6 + 3t2 + 10 is divided by t3 + 1 is :

;fn t6 + 3t2 + 10 dks t3 + 1 ls foHkkftr fd;k tk, rks izkIr 'ks"kQy gksxk &

(A) t2 – 11 (B) 3t2 + 11 (C) t3 – 1 (D) t4 + 1

33. The point (0, –5) lies on (A) +ve x-axis (B) +ve y-axis (C) -ve x-axis (D) -ve y-axis

fcUnq (0, –5) mifLFkr gksxk &

(A) +ve x-v{k ij (B) +ve y-v{k ij (C) -ve x-v{k ij (D) -ve y-v{k ij

34. In a right angle triangle ABC is right angled at B. Given that AB = 9 cm, AC = 15 cm and D, E are the

mid-points of the sides AB and AC respectively, then the area of ADE =

Ledks.k f=kHkqt ABC esa B, ledks.k gSA fn;k gS fd AB = 9 lseh] AC = 15 lseh vkSj D rFkk E, Hkqtkvksa Øe'k% AB

vkSj AC ds e/; fcUnq gSA rc ADE dk {kS=kQy gksxkA

(A) 67.5 cm2 (B) 13.5 cm2 (C) 27 cm2 (D) data insufficient

vk¡dMsa vi;kZIr gS

35. In a given figure PQ || ST, PQR = 110°, RST = 130° then value of QRS is

fn;s fp=k esa PQ || ST , PQR = 110° , RST = 130° gS rc QRS gksxk

P Q

S T

130°

110°

R (A) 20° (B) 50° (C) 60° (D) 70°

36. In the given figure, which of the following statement is true ? A

B C

16cm 15cm

19 cm (A) B = C (B) B is the greatest angle in triangle

(C) B is the smallest angle in triangle (D) A is the smallest angle in triangle

fn;s fp=k ds vuqlkj] dkSulk dFku lR; gksxk \

A

B C

16cm 15cm

19 cm (A) B = C (B) B, f=kHkqt esa lcls cM+k dks.k gSA

(C) B, f=kHkqt esa lcls NksVk dks.k gSA (D) A, f=kHkqt esa lcls NksVk dks.k gSA







37. If the area of the shaded region is 1320 – k 105 m2 then find k.

;fn Nk;kafdr Hkkx dk {kS=kQy 1320 – k 105 gS] rc k dk eku Kkr dhft,A

120m 122m

26m 24m

22m

(A) 12 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D)18

38. If (2, 0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x + 3y = k, then find the value of k.

;fn (2,0) jsf[kd lehsj.k 2x + 3y = k dk ,d gy gS rc k dk eku gksxkA

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 4.5

39. The dimension of a cuboid is 10 m × 8 m × 6 m. Then the diagonal of the cuboid is :

,d ?kukHk dh foek 10 m × 8 m × 6 m gS] rks ?kukHk dk fod.kZ gS&

(A) 41.44 m (B) 14.14 m (C) 41.14 m (D) 14.41 m

40. In ABC, AD is a median and P is a point on AD such that AP : PD = 1 : 2, then the area of ABP =

(A) 1

2× Area of ABC (B)

2

3× Area of ABC (C)

1

3× Area of ABC (D)

1

6× Area of ABC

f=kHkqt ABC esa AD ,d ekf/;dk gS vkSj fcUnq P, AD ij bl izdkj gS fd AP : PD = 1 : 2 gS] rc ABP dk

{kS=kQy gksxk&

(A) 1

2× ABC dk {kS=kQy (B)

2

3× ABC dk {kS=kQy (C)

1

3× ABC dk {kS=kQy(D)

1

6× ABC dk {kS=kQy

41. In figure, O is centre, then BXD =

fn;s x;s fp=k esa O dsUnz gS] rc BXD =

(A) 65° (B) 60° (C) 70° (D) 55°







42. The sum and product of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial are –4 and –1 respectively, the quadratic polynomial is

;fn fdlh f}?kkr O;atd ds ewyksa dk ;ksx rFkk xq.kuQy Øe'k% –4 rFkk –1 gSA rks og f}?kkr O;atd gksxh &

(A) x2 – 4x + 1 (B) x2 – 4x - 1 (C) x2 + 4x +1 (D) x2 + 4x – 1

43. The circumference of a circle and perimeter of a square are equal. The ratio of their areas is :

,d o`Ùk dh ifjf/k rFkk oxZ dk ifjeki cjkcj gSaA buds {ks=kQyksa dk vuqikr gS &

(A) : 4 (B) 2 : (C) : 2 (D) 4 :

44. The mean of 100 observations is 50. If one of the observations which was 50 is replaced by 150, then find the resulting mean.

100 izs{k.kksa dk ek/; 50 gSA ;fn ,d izs{k.k tks fd 50 gS dks 150 ls izfrLFkkfir dj fn;k tk, rks ifj.kkeh ek/;

gksxkA

(A) 49 (B) 51 (C) 52 (D) 50.50

45. A number x is chosen at random from the numbers –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3. The probability that |x| < 2 is :

,d la[;k x tks fd la[;kvksa –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 esa ls pquh tkrh gSA |x| < 2 gksus dh izkf;drk D;k gksxh &

(A) 5

7 (B)

2

7 (C)

3

7 (D)

1

7

46. If x 3 8 and y 3 8 then 2 2

1 1

x y =

;fn x 3 8 vkSj y 3 8 gS rc 2 2

1 1

x y =

(A) – 34 (B) 34 (C) 12 8 (D) 12 8

47. Bisectors of interior B and exterior ACD of a ABC intersect at the point T. Then BTC =

ABC ds var% dks.k ∠B vkSj cfg"dks.k ∠ACD ds lef}Hkktd fcanq T ij izfrPNsn djrs gSa rks BTC =

(A) 2

1BAC (B) BAC (C)

3

1BAC (D) None of these

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

48. If the mean of the observations: x, x + 3 ,x + 5, x + 7, x + 10 is 9, then find the mean of the last three observations.

;fn izs{k.kksa x , x + 3 , x + 5 , x + 7 , x + 10 dk ek/; 9 gS rc vafre 3 izs{k.kksa dk ek/; D;k gksxkA

(A) 3

211 (B) 11.5 (C) 11 (D)

111

3

49. In ABC, mA = 140º, ‘P’ is the centre of the circumcircle of ABC. Find mPBC

f=kHkqt ABC esa mA = 140º gS] ‘P’ f=kHkqt ABC ds ifjo`r dk dsUnz gSA mPBC Kkr dhft,A

(A) 40° (B) 50° (C) 80° (D) 100°

50. The radius of a hemisphere is 3 cm. The total surface area is –

,d v/kZo`r dh f=kT;k 3 lseh gSA bldk lEiw.kZ i`"Bh; {ks=kQy gS&

(A) 9

4 cm2 (B) 9 cm2 (C) 18 cm2 (D) 27 cm2







PART-II : (Hkkx-II)

SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 45)


This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions



bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA


vadu ;kstuk :



51. A stone is moved round a horizontal circle with a 20 cm long string tied to it. If centripetal acceleration

is 9.8 m/sec2, then its angular velocity will be

20 lseh- yEch Mksjh ds ,d fljsa ij ,d iRFkj cka/kdj mls {kSfrt o`Ùk esa /kqek;k tkrk gSA ;fn vfHkdsUnzh; Roj.k dk

eku 9.8 m/sec2 gS rks bldh dks.kh; pky gksxh &

(A) 7 rad/s (B) 22/7 rad/s (C) 49 rad/s (D) 14 rad/s

52. The engine of a car produces acceleration 4 m/s2 in the car. If this car pulls another car of same mass.

What will be the acceleration produced-

,d dkj dk batu 4 eh@ls-2 dk Roj.k mRiUu djrk gS ;fn ;gh dkj leku nzO;eku dh nwljh dkj dks [khaprh gS

rks vc Roj.k gksxk&

(A) 1 m/s2 (B) 1.5 m/s2 (C) 2 m/s2 (D) 4 m/s2

53. A satellite is moving round the earth near the earth’s surface. In order to make it move to infinity, its

velocity must be increased by

(A) 20% (B) it is impossible to do so

(C) 82.8% (D) 41.4%

,d mixzg i`Foh ds pkjksa vksj i`Foh ds fudV pDdj yxk jgk gSA bls vuUr eas xfr djkus ds fy;s bldk osx ls

c<kuk gksxk&

(A) 20% (B) ,slk djuk vlEHko gS

(C) 82.8% (D) 41.4%







54. Figure here shown the vertical cross-section of a vessel filled with a liquid of density . The normal

thrust per unit area on the walls of the vessel at point. P, as shown, will be

fp=k esa fn[kk;sa crZu dks ?kuRo ds nzo ls Hkjk x;k gSaA nhokj ds P fcUnq ij ,dkad {ks=kQy ij yxus okyk

vfHkyEcor~ cy gksxkA

(A) h g (B) H g (C) (H – h) g (D) (H – h) g cos

55. If the unit of force and length each be increased by four times, then the unit of energy is increased by

;fn cy o yEckbZ dh bdkbZ dks pkj xquk dj fn;k tk;s rks ÅtkZ dh bdkbZ c<+ tkrh gS &

(A) 16 times (B) 8 times (C) 2 times (D) 4 times

(A) 16 xquk (B) 8 xquk (C) 2 xquk (D) 4 xquk

56. The terms pitch, quality and loudness of sound are associated with the following, respectively-

(A) intensity, frequency and waveform (B) Frequency, intensity and waveform

(C) Frequency, waveform and intensity (D) Waveform, frequency and intensity

/ofu dk rkjRo] xq.krk vkSj izcyrk (loudness) fuEufyf[kr ds lkFk Øe'k% tqM+s gq, gSa-

(A) rhozrk] vko`fÙk vkSj rjax vkdkj (waveform) (B) vko`fÙk] rhozrk] vkSj rjax vkdkj

(C) vkofÙk] rjax vkdkj vkSj rhozrk (D) rjax vkdkj] vko`fÙk vkSj rhozrk

57. A motor car covers 1

3rd part of total distance with v1 = 10 km/hr, second

1

3rd part with v2 = 20 km/hr

and rest 1

3rd part with v3 = 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

(A) 18 km/hr (B) 45 km/hr (C) 6 km/hr (D) 22.5 km/hr

,d dkj r; nwjh dk izFke ,d frgkbZ Hkkx v1 = 10 km/hr dh pky ls] nwljk ,d frgkbZ Hkkx v2 = 20 km/hr dh

pky ls rFkk 'ks"k nwjh v3 = 60 km/hr dh pky ls r; djrh gSA rks dkj dh vkSlr pky gksxh&

(A) 18 fdeh@?kaVk (B) 45 fdeh@?kaVk (C) 6 fdeh@?kaVk (D) 22.5 fdeh@?kaVk

58. In a tug of war each of the two teams apply 1000 Newton force at the ends of a rope, which is found to

be in equilibrium, the tension in the rope is-

jLlkd'kh esa nks Vhesa jLls ds Nksjksa ij nksuksa vksj 1,000 U;wVu cy yxkrh gS ;fn jLlh lkE;koLFkk esa gS rks jLls esa

mRiUu ruko gS&

(A) 2000 newton (B) 1000 newton (C) 500 newton (D) zero

(A) 2000 U;wVu (B) 1000 U;wVu (C) 500 U;wVu (D) 'kwU;







59. The speed with which the earth have to rotate on its axis so that a person on the equator would weight

(3/5)th as much as present will be (Take the equatorial radius as 6400 km.)

i`Foh dh viuh v{k ij pky D;k gks] ftlls Hkwe/; js[kk ij fLFkr O;fDr dk Hkkj orZeku Hkkj dk (3/5)th Hkkx gksA

(i`Foh dh Hkwe/; js[kh; f=kT;k 6400 km.)

(A) 3.28 × 10–4 rad/sec (B) 7.826 × 10–4 rad/sec

(C) 3.28 × 10–3 rad/sec (D) 7.28 × 10–3 rad/sec

60. A tank with length 10 m, breadth 8 m and depth 6m is filled with water to the top. If g = 10 m s–2 and

density of water is 1000 kg m–3, then the thrust on the bottom is

10 m yEckbZ] 8 m pkSM+kbZ rFkk 6m xgjkbZ dk VSad ikuh ls iwjk Hkjk gqvk gSA ;fn ikuh dk ?kuRo 1000 kg/m3 gSA

rks ryh ij mRiUu cy (thrust) gksxkA (g = 10 m s–2)

(A) 6 × 1000 × 10 × 80 N (B) 3 × 1000 × 10 × 48 N

(C) 3 × 1000 × 10 × 60 N (D) 3 × 1000 × 10 × 80 N

61. A man pushes wall and fails to displace it. He does

,d vkneh nhokj dks /kDdk nsrk gS o bls foLFkkfir djus esa vlQy jgrk gSA og djrk gS &

(A) Negative work (B) Positive but not maximum work

(C) No work at all (D) Maximum work

(A) _.kkRed dk;Z (B) /kukRed fdUrq vf/kdre dk;Z ugha

(C) fcydqy dk;Z ugha (D) vf/kdre dk;Z

62. When sound wave is refracted from air to water, which of the following will remain unchanged ?

(A) wave number (B) wavelength (C) wave velocity (D) frequency

tc /ofu rjax gok ls ikuh esas viofrZr gskrh gS rks fuEu esa dkSulk ifjofrZr ugha gksrk gSA

(A) rjax la[;k (B) rjax nS/;Z (C) rjax osx (D) vko`fÙk

63. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of the elevator in

a time t1 if the elevator is stationary and in time t2 if it is moving with constant velocity. Then-

fy¶V dh lrg ij [kM+k ,d euq"; ,d flDds dks NksM+rk gSA ;fn fy¶V :dh gqbZ gks rks ;g Q'kZ rd igq¡pus esa t1

le; ysrk gS ,oa ;fn fy¶V fu;r osx ls xfr'khy gks rks t2 le; yxrk gS rks&

(A) t1 = t2 (B) t1 < t2 (C) t1 > t2 (D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2

64. A particle is moving with velocity 5 m/s towards east and its velocity changes to 5 m/s north in 10 sec.

Find the acceleration.

,d d.k 5 m/s ds osx ls iwoZ dh vksj xfr dj jgk gS rFkk 10 sec esa bldk osx ifjofrZr gksdj 5 m/s mÙkj dh

vksj gks tkrk gSA d.k dk Roj.k Kkr djks&

(A) 22m/ s N W (B) 21m/ s N W

2 (C) 21

m/ s N E2

(D) 22m/ s N E

65. On a planet (whose size is the same as that of earth and mass 4 times to the earth) the energy needed

to lift a 2kg mass vertically upwards through 2m distance on the planet is (g = 10m/sec2 on surface of

earth)

,d xzg (ftldk vkdkj i`Foh ds vkdkj ds cjkcj rFkk æO;eku i`Foh ds æO;eku 4 xquk gS) ij 2kg æO;eku dh oLrq

dks Å/okZ/kj 2m Åij mBkus esa vko';d ÅtkZ gksxhA (g = 10m/sec2 i`Foh ry ij)

(A) 16 J (B) 32 J (C) 160 J (D) 320 J







PART-III : (Hkkx-III)



This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions



bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA


vadu ;kstuk :



66. Strongest forces of attraction exists between the particles of

(A) air (B) water (C) oxygen (D) copper

vf/kdre vkd"kZ.k cy fuEu esa ls fdu d.kksa ds chp esa gksxk

(A) ok;q (B) ty (C) vkWDlhtu (D) rk¡ck

67. A mixture –

(A) has a fixed composition. (B) does not have a fixed melting point.

(C) has a fixed melting point. (D) is a pure substance.

,d feJ.k &

(A) fuf'pr vuqikr j[krk gSA (B) fuf'pr xyukad ugha j[krk gSA

(C) fuf'pr xyukad j[krk gSA (D) ,d 'kqð inkFkZ gSA

68. The molecular mass of Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) is

lksfM;e ukbZVªsV(NaNO3) dk v.kq&Hkkj gSA

(A) 58u. (B) 132u. (C) 85u. (D) 42u.

69. The positive charge of nucleus of an atom is due to

(A) protons. (B) neutrons. (C) electrons. (D) nucleons.

ijek.kq ds ukfHkd ij /kukosf'kr gksus dk dkj.k gS

(A) izksVksu (B) U;wVªksu (C) bysDVªksu (D) U;wfDyvksu

70. In which sublimation is involved :

(A) Incense stick and odonil (B) Camphor and incense stick

(C) Perfume and odonil (D) Naphthalene balls and camphor

fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;qXe esa Å/oZikru lfEefyr gSa %

(A) vxjcRrh vkSj vksMksfuy (B) diwj vkSj vxjcRrh

(C) b=k¼ij¶;we½ vkSj vksMksfuy (D) usQfFkfyu ckYl vkSj diwj







71. The size of particles in a true solution is almost equal to ________.

okLrfod foy;u esa d.kksa dk vkdkj yxHkx ________ gksrk gSA

(A) 10–5m (B) 10–6m (C) 10–7m (D) 10–9m

72. The number of moles in 52 g of Helium is

ghfy;e ds 52 xzke esa eksyksa dh la[;k gS

(A) 1 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 52

73. The relation between A(protons 17 and neutrons 18) and B(protons 17 and neutrons 20) is

(A) they have no relation. (B) they are isotopes.

(C) they are isobars. (D) they are isotones.

A(17 izksVksUl vkSj 18 U;wVªksUl) rFkk B (17 izksVksUl vkSj 20 U;wVªksUl) ds e/; lEcU/k gS

(A) ;s dksbZ lEcU/k ugha j[krs gSaA (B) ;s leLFkkfud gS

(C) ;s lEHkkfjd gSa (D) ;s leU;wVªksfud gS

74. On heating, kinetic energy of the molecules :

(A) decreases. (B) increases.

(C) either decreases or increases. (D) remains same.

m".ku ¼xeZ djus½ ij v.kqvksa dh xfrt ÅtkZ %

(A) ?kVrh gS (B) c<+rh gS

(C) ;k rks ?kVrh gS ;k c<+rh gS (D) leku jgrh gS

75. The compound which liberates hydrogen gas when added to a mixture of iron fillings and sulphur

powder is

(A) sodium chloride (B) sodium hydroxide (C) copper sulphate (D) sulphuric acid

og ;kSfxd tks fd gkbMªkstu xSl mRiUu djrk gS tc mls yksgS dk cqjknk o lYQj pw.kZ ds feJ.k ds lkFk feyk;k tkrk gSA

(A) lksfM;e DyksjkbM (B) lksfM;e gkbMªksDlkbM (C) dkWij lYQsV (D) LkY¶;wfjd vEy

76. An element A forms an oxide A2O3, the valency of A is

,d rRo A, A2O3 vkWDlkbM fufeZr djrk gS rks A dh la;kstDrk gSA

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 1







77. An element has atomic number 26. Its electronic configuration will be

,d rRo ftldh ijek.kq la[;k 26 gaSA bldk bySDVªkWfud foU;kl gksxk

(A) 2, 2, 10, 12 (B) 2, 8, 13, 3 (C) 2, 8, 16 (D) 2, 8, 14, 2

78. Temperature of 45 oC is equal to_________

45 oC rkieku__________ds cjkcj gSA

(A) 318 K. (B) 228 K. (C) – 228 K. (D) – 318 K.

79. The condition required for separating the components of a mixture of two or more miscible liquids by

fractional distillation is

(A) their boiling points should be same.

(B) their boiling points should be less than 373 K.

(C) their boiling points should differ by a certain value.

(D) the boiling point of one of the component should be 373 K.

nks ;k nks ls vf/kd feJ.kh; nzoksa dks izHkkth vklou }kjk feJ.k dks vi?kVdksa esa iFd djus ds fy, vko';d 'krZ gSA

(A) budk DoFkukad fcUnq leku gksuk pkfg,A

(B) budk DoFkukad fcUnq 373 K ls de gksuk pkfg,A

(C) budk DoFkukad fcUnq ,d fuf'pr eku ls fHkUu gksuk pkfg,A

(D) fdlh Hkh ,d vi?kVd dk DoFkukad fcUnq 373 K gksuk pkfg,A

80. The ionic compound is :

vk;fud ;kSfxd gS %

(A) C4H10 (B) NaCl (C) HCl (D) All of these

mijksDr lHkh







PART-IV : (Hkkx-IV)



This section contains TWENTY (20) questions



bl [kaM esa chl (20) iz’'u gSaA

izR;sd iz’'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA

vadu ;kstuk :



Direction (81 to 83) Find the mising term.

funsZ'k (Q.81 to 83) % yqIr in Kkr djsaA

81. 9, 10, 18, 26, 45, ?,135 (A) 50 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 55

82. HMR, BGL, VAF, PUZ, ? (A) JMK (B) LOR (C) NOT (D) JOT

83.

(A) 70 (B) 101 (C) 91 (D) 97

84. If BOTTLES is coded as UCNRVMD then EXTREME would be ?

;fn BOTTLES dks UCNRVMD dksM fd;k tkrk gS] rc EXTREME gksxk &

(A) GKGPUVG (B) GKGPGUV (C) GKGPVVG (D) GKGUPVG

Directions : (85) Five bottles of different colours are arranged in a row. One of the two bottles at the extreme

ends is Yellow and other one is Green. A Red bottle is arranged to the right of a Blue bottle. A Black

bottle is to the left of the Green bottle and the Blue bottle is between the Yelllow and Red bottle.

funsZ'k % (85) ikap vyx&vyx jax dh cksrysa ,d iafä esa j[kh gqbZ gSA iafä ds vfUre fljks ij j[kh nksuksa cksryksa esa ls ,d

ihyh rFkk nwljh gjh gSA ,d yky cksry] uhyh cksry ds nka;s vkSj gSA ,d dkyh cksry] gjh cksry ds ck;sa gS rFkk

uhyh cksry] ihyh vkSj yky cksry ds e/; es gSA

85. What is the place of Blue bottle from right ?

(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

uhyh cksry dk nka;s ls dkSulk LFkku ij gSA

(A) igys (B) nwljs (C) rhljs (D) pkSFks







Directions (86) : There are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the

conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given

statements.

funZs'k (86) : uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds ckn nks fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls fu"d"kZ lgh

gksxsA

86. Statements : All cards are kings. All kings are jokers.

Conclusions : I. All jokers are cards. II. Some jokers are cards.

(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows (D) if both conclusions I and II follow

dFku % lHkh dkMZ jktk+ gSA lHkh jktk+ tksdj gSA

fu"d”"kZ : I. lHkh tksdj dkMZ gSA II. dqN tksdj dkMZ gSA

(A) dsoy I fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA (B) dsoy II fu"d”"kZ ”lgh gSA

(C) dksbZ Hkh fu"d”"kZ lgh ugha gSA (D) nksuks fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA

Directions : (87) Read the information carefully given below and answer the questions that follow.

A.total of nine objects consisting of four pens, four pencils and one eraser were there with A, B are C.

I. Everyone had at least one pen

II. B had two objects, A had three objects, and C had four objects.

III. The man with the most objects did not have the eraser.

Directions : (87) uhps nh xbZ lwpukvksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+us ds ckn iz'uksa dk mÙkj nhft,

A] B rFkk C ds ikl dqy ukS oLrq,sa gSa ftlesa pkj isu] pkj isafly rFkk ,d jcj gSa

I. izR;sd ds ikl de ls de ls ,d isu gSaA

II. B ds ikl nks oLrq,sa gSa] A ds ikl rhu oLrq,sa gS vkSj C ds ikl pkj oLrq,sa gSaA

III. vR;kf/kd oLrqvksa okys O;fDr ds ikl jcj ugha gSA

87. Who had the eraser ?

(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) A or B

jcj fdlds ikl gSa \

(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) A vFkok B

88. Rajesh went to a fair eleven days ago. He goes to the fair only on Wednesday. What day of the week is

today ?

(A) Thursday (B) Saturday (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday

jkts'k X;kjg fnu iwoZ esyk ns[kus x;kA og esyk dsoy cq/kokj dks ns[kus tkrk gSA lIrkg dk dkSulk fnu vkt gksxk \

(A) xq:okj (B) 'kfuokj (C) jfookj (D) eaxyokj







89. What is the alphabet will come at the place of ?.

? ds LFkku ij dkSulk v{kj gksxkA

D B

A

E D

F

B ?

C

(A) B (B) D (C) E (D) F

Direction (90 to 92) Find the missing term.

funZs'k (90 ls 92) : yqIr in Kkr djsA

90. 7, 16, 18, 84, 264, ?

(A) 1526 (B) 1614 (C) 1621 (D) 1509

91. 3

B,

6

D,

12

H,

21

N, ?

(A) 30

S (B)

30

V (C)

33

U (D)

33

V

92.

(A) 37 (B) 73 (C) 49 (D) 74

93. If east is called west, west is called north-east, north-east is called south, south is called south-

west and south-west is called north-west, In which direction is the sun-set ?

(A) west (B) south (C) north-west (D) north-east

;fn iwoZ dks if'pe dgk tk,] if'pe dks mÙkj&iwoZ dgk tk;] mÙkj&iwoZ dks nf{k.k dgk tk,] nf{k.k dks

nf{k.k&if'pe vkSj nf{k.k&if'pe dks mÙkj& if'pe dgk tk;] rks lw;kZLr fdl fn'kk esa gksxk \

(A) if'pe (B) nf{k.k (C) mÙkj& if'pe (D) mÙkj&iwoZ

94. In question no. 85 Bottle to the left of Blue bottle is which of the following colour ?

(A) Yellow (B) Green (C) Red (D) Black

iz'u la[;k 85 esa uhyh cksry ds ck¡;s vksj fuEu esa ls dkSuls jax dh cksry gSA

(A) ihyh (B) gjh (C) yky (D) dkyh

15

11

25

(68) 17

(21) 10

(?) 12







Direction (95) : There are two statements followed by four conclusions. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements.

funZs'k (95) : uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds ckn pkj fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls fu"d"kZ lgh

gksxsA

95. Statements : Some plates are chips. All chips are phones. Conclusions : I. Some plates are phones. II. Some phones are chips. III. All chips are plates. IV. All phones are chips. (A) Only II and IV follow (B) Only II and III follow (C) Only I and II follow (D) Only III and IV follow

dFku : dqN IysVs fpIl gSA lHkh fpIl Qksu gSA

fu"d”"kZ : I. dqN IysVsa Qksu gS. II. dqN Qksu fpIl gSA

III. lHkh fpIl IysVsa gSA IV. lHkh Qksu fpIl gSA

(A) dsoy II vkSj IV lgh gS (B) dsoy II vkSj III lgh gSA

(C) dsoy I vkSj II lgh gSA (D) dsoy III vkSj IV lgh gSA

96. In question number 87 Who can have three pencils ? (A) B (B) C (C) A (D) A or C

iz'u la[;k 87 e]sa rhu isaflysa fdlds ikl gksaxh \

(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) A vFkok C

97. Find the day of week on 1st July, 1992. (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Thursday (D) Wednesday

1 tqykbZ 1992 dks lIrkg dk fnu Kkr dhft;s \

(A) lkseokj (B) eaxyokj (C) xq:okj (D) cq/kokj

98. Which number is opposite to 4 ?

4 ds foijhr dkSulh la[;k gksxh ?

1 6

4

3 5

6

(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 1

99. If C = 5 & TECH = 71, then DANCE = ?

;fn C = 5 vkSj TECH = 71, rc DANCE = ?

(A) 51 (B) 53 (C) 50 (D) 52

Directions (100) : Answer the question based on the following information. 6 womens U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table. It was noticed that no two womens the

initial letters of whose names are adjacent in the alphabetical order, sat next to each other, X is opposite of U. Y is not to the immediate right of U.

funsZ'k (100) :fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh ds vk/kkj ij iz'u dk mÙkj nhft,A

6 efgyk;sa U, V, W, X, Y rFkk Z xksy Vscy ij cSBsa gSaA ftu Hkh nks efgykvksa ds uke dk igyk v{kj vaxzsth o.kZekyk

ds Øekuqlkj vkrk gS] vkl&ikl ugh cSBha gSaA X, U ds foifjr cSBk gSA Y, U ds Bhd nk;sa ugha cSBha gSA

100. Who sat to the immediate right of U ?

dkSu U ds Bhd nk;sa cSBk gS \

(A) V (B) W (C) Y (D) Z



IMPORTANT INFORMATION RELATED TO 'VIKAAS' COURSE (CODE : JA)

The student is advised to read the information given on this page only after he/she completes the test.

Result of the Selection Test (ResoFAST-2020) of VIKAAS Course will be declared 26-10-2019. It will be available on our website

www.resonance.ac.in. It may be communicated through SMS also. The mobile number given by you in the ORS shall be used

for communication of the result.

Any information regarding the result will neither be published in news-papers nor it will be communicated through

telephone/e-mail/institute's Notice Board.

The list of selected students (according to the total planned intake) is declared by taking various factors into consideration.

We only declare Application Form Number of the selected student. Individual Marks, Highest Marks, Lowest Marks, Cut-off Marks

are not declared.

Course Name (Course Code)

Course Fee (C.F.)

GST @ 18% on C.F.

Caution Money (C.M.)

Total Course Fee (C.F.+ GST+C.M.)

Advanced Registration

Fee (ARF)

I-Installment

II-Installment

VIKAAS (JA) Rs. 96186/- Rs. 21814/- Rs.2000/- Rs. 145000/- 25000/- Rs. 87800/- Rs. 57200/-

How to Deposit Course Fee:

The Course Fee should be paid to Resonance Eduventures Ltd. by :

Drawing a Demand Draft (DD)/Pay Order in favour of “RESONANCE” and payable at Kota with Student’s Name and Roll No. on

the backside of DD in person or through Speed Post/ Courier.

The Fee can also be directly deposited in the SBI Account of Resonance (30969014861) / CBI Account of Resonance

(3154400127) / AXIS Bank Account of Resonance (911020066348406) (EASY PAY) / YES Bank Account of Resonance

(039383900000185) (RESONANCE) at any of the branches of Banks through Cash or Demand Draft made in favour of

Resonance. The Students have been given Bank Fee Deposition Challan in the Admission Packet for depositing fee at any of the

branches of SBI/CBI/AXIS/YES Bank across India.

Initial Batches of 'VIKAAS Course will be formed on the basis of student’s performance in the selection test (ResoFAST-2019)

(first criterion) and the deposition of fee before the last date (second criterion).

All the information regarding batch allotment, venue of classes, distribution of Welcome Packet shall be announced along with the

batch allotment list to be displayed at Institute Website (www.resonance.ac.in).

The regular classes will commence as per the time table.

For more information please refer ResoGuide-2020-21