Upload
william-zhang
View
215
Download
0
Embed Size (px)
Citation preview
USAMTS 2014-2015 Round 1
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 1
1.
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 2 2. In order for π₯, π¦, π§, π₯ β π¦, π¦ β π§, and π₯ β π§ to all be positive integers, we must have π₯ > π¦ > π§ > 0. Lemma: The only ordered triplet (π, π, π) of consecutive odd numbers that satisfy π > π > π and π, π, π β {prime numbers} is (π, π, π) = (7, 5, 3) Proof for lemma: Any triplet of consecutive positive odd numbers can be expressed in the form (π + 4, π + 2, π), where π is some natural number. Notice that each of π + 4, π + 2, and π all have a unique remainder when divided by three. Thus, at least one of π + 4, π + 2, and π have a remainder of 0 when divided by three, so it is divisible by 3. However, a prime number can only have two positive divisors which are 1 and the number itself. So, the number in the set {π, π + 2, π + 4} that is divisible by 3 must be equal to 3 in order to be prime. After testing the possibilities π = 3, π + 2 = 3, and π + 4 = 3, only the equation π = 3 makes (π + 4, π + 2, π) a triplet of prime numbers, so the only ordered triplet (π, π, π) of consecutive odd numbers that satisfy π > π > π and π, π, π β {prime numbers} is (π, π, π) = (π + 4, π + 2, π) = (3 + 4, 3 + 2, 3) = (7, 5, 3) We can categorize all possible solutions into exactly one of the following cases:
All of π₯, π¦, and π§ are odd numbers that satisfy π₯, π¦, π§, π₯ β π¦, π¦ β π§, and π₯ β π§ are all prime. o There are no solutions under this case. If π₯, π¦, and π§ are all odd, then that means that π₯ β π§
and π¦ β π§ are both even prime numbers, so π₯ β π§ = 2 and π¦ β π§ = 2. By the transitive property, we would have π₯ β π§ = π¦ β π§ βΉ π₯ = π¦, which contradicts the strict inequality from earlier, which stated π₯ > π¦.
Exactly one of π₯, π¦, and π§ are even while the other two are odd. o We can conclude that π§ must be the even number because 2 is the smallest prime number
and π₯ > π¦ > π§. This means that π₯ and π¦ are both odd, so π₯ β π¦ is even and thus π₯ β π¦ = 2 βΉ π¦ = π₯ β 2. Also, because π¦ β π§ is prime, we have π¦ β π§ = π¦ β 2 = π₯ β 4 is prime. Thus we have three prime numbers (π₯, π¦, π¦ β π§) = (π₯, π₯ β 2, π₯ β 4) which are also consecutive odd numbers. By the lemma, the only solution to this is (π₯, π¦, π¦ β π§) = (7, 5, 3) βΉ (π₯, π¦, π§) = (7, 5, 2)
At least two of π₯, π¦, and π§ are even. o There are no solutions under this case. If at least two of π₯, π¦, and π§ are even, then these two
even prime are both equal to 2, and then by the transitive property, would be equal to each other. This contradicts the strict inequality π₯ > π¦ > π§.
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 3 3. a) To do this problem, we will use recursion.
In a group with two people with heights 140 and 145, there are two permutations that are in almost-order: the permutation (140, 145) and the permutation (145, 140) In a group of three people with heights 140, 145, and 150, there are three permutations that are in almost-order: the permutations (140, 145, 150), (145, 140, 150), and (140, 150, 145). From the definition of a permutation that is in almost-order, we see that a person of height 135 + 5(π + 2) cannot be to the left of a person of height 135 + 5π, so each person is changed from their original position (the position they would have if they were in increasing order) by at most 1 place. In a group of π people with heights 140, 145, 150,β¦ , and 135 + 5π, any almost-order can be constructed from one of the two following cases:
The person of height 135 + 5π (tallest person) can be added to the back of a line of length π β 1
The person of height 135 + 5π can be added to the back of a line of length π β 2 and then the person of height 130 + 5π (second-tallest person) can be placed behind the tallest person so that the second-tallest person is at the end of the line and the tallest person is in the second-to-last position in line.
Therefore we have the following recursion: π₯π = π₯πβ1 + π₯πβ2, where π₯π is the number of almost-ordered permutations when considering the first π shortest people. 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89, so our answer is 89 b) We use a very similar recursive strategy.
We define π΄π to be the number of almost-ordered permutations when considering the first π shortest
people.
We can use the same Fibonacci-like sequence for the first 9 people of heights 120, 125, 130, 135, 140,
145, 150, 155, and 160. We find that there are π΄9 = 55 almost-order permutations, if we only consider
the people with heights between 120 and 160, inclusive.
To construct a permutation that includes all the people of heights between 120 and 164, inclusive, we
can:
Add the person of height 164 to the back of the line that contains the first 9 shortest people, or
Add the person of height 164 to the back of the line that contains the first 8 shortest people then
add the person of height 160 to the back of the new line so that the person of height 264 is second-
to-last.
From here, we can calculate π΄10 = π΄9 + π΄8 = 55 + 34 = 89.
To construct a permutation that includes the first 11 shortest people, we can:
Add the person of height 165 to the back of the line that contains the first 10 shortest people,
Add the person of height 165 to the of the line that contains the first 9 shortest people, and then
place either the person of height 160 or the person of height 164 behind the person of height 165,
or
Add the person of height 165 to the back of the line that contains the first 8 shortest people, and
then place the persons of heights 160 and 164 at the end of the line, in either order.
We calculate that π΄11 = π΄10 + 2π΄9 + 2π΄8 = 89 + 2 Γ 55 + 2 Γ 34 = 267
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 3
To construct a permutation that includes the first 12 shortest people, we can:
Add the person of height 170 to the back of the line that contains the first 11 shortest people,
Add the person of height 170 to the back of the line that contains the first 10 shortest people and
then place either the person of height 165 or the person of height 164 behind the person of height
170, or
Add the person of height 170 to the back of the line that contains the first 9 shortest people and add
both people of heights 164 and 165 behind the person of height 170.
We calculate that π΄12 = π΄11 + 2π΄10 + 2π΄9 = 267 + 2 Γ 89 + 2 Γ 55 = 555
Constructing permutation that include the first 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 shortest people uses
the same Fibonacci-like algorithm as constructing permutations for part a of this problem because the
common difference is now equal to 5.
π΄13 = π΄12 + π΄11 = 555 + 267 = 822
π΄14 = π΄13 + π΄12 = 822 + 555 = 1377
π΄15 = π΄14 + π΄13 = 1377 + 822 = 2199
π΄16 = π΄15 + π΄14 = 2199 + 1377 = 3576
π΄17 = π΄16 + π΄15 = 3576 + 2199 = 5775
π΄18 = π΄17 + π΄16 = 5775 + 3576 = 9351
π΄19 = π΄18 + π΄17 = 9351 + 5775 = 15126
π΄20 = π΄19 + π΄18 = 15126 + 9351 = 24477
The answer is 24477
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 4 4. Definition: a polygon is inscribed in a circle iff the vertices of the polygon are also points on the circle. Lemma 1: There exists a regular π-gon that passes through a set of points on a circle iff the arcs between
any two of the points that lie on the circle can be written in the form 2ππ
π, where π is some natural number
less than π. Proof for Lemma:
Let π΄ and π΅ be two arbitrary points that lie on the circle. We will first show that if there exists a regular π-gon inscribed in circle π that has vertices π΄ and π΅, then the measure of minor arc π΄π΅ can be written in the
form 2ππ
π.
We know that an inscribed regular π-gon would break the circumference of the circle into π arcs of equal measure and that the total circumference has a measure of 2π radians, so each piece of the circumference
would have measure 2π
π. Since π΄ and π΅ are vertices of the regular π-gon, we know that the measure of
arc π΄π΅ can be written as the number of arcs that have a measure of 2π
π between π΄ and π΅ times the measure
of each of these arcs, so the product would be 2ππ
π, where π is the number of these arcs between π΄ and π΅.
Now we need to prove that if the measure of minor arc π΄π΅ can be written in the form 2ππ
π, then there exists
a regular π-gon inscribed in circle π that has vertices at points π΄ and π΅. Since π is an integer, we can place points along the circumference of circle π such that the arcs between
any two consecutive points has a measure of 2π
π, there are π of these arcs, and arc π΄π΅ is made of π of these
arcs. Because these arcs all have equal measures, we can conclude that the endpoints of these arcs are the vertices of the inscribed regular π-gon. Lemma 2: If two circles of centers π1 and π2 that have equal radius intersect at two points, π and π, then the measure of minor arc ππ of circle π1 is equal to the measure of minor arc ππ of circle π2. Proof for Lemma: We wish to prove that the 2 bolded arcs have equal measures.
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 4
We know that ππ1 β ππ1 β ππ2 β ππ2 because we are given that the two circles have equal radii, and all the radii of the same circle are congruent. We also have ππ β ππ by the reflexive property. Therefore, we can conclude that triangle ππ1π β ππ2π by the SSS congruence postulate. Therefore, by CPCTC, we have β ππ1π β β ππ2π β πβ‘ππ1π = πβ‘ππ2π Because the central angles of the two arcs have equal measures, and the measure of an arc is equal to the measure of its central angle, we can conclude that the measure of minor arc ππ of circle π1 is equal to the measure of minor arc ππ of circle π2. Solution to problem: We are given that circles ππ and ππ intersect at points π΄ and π΅ and that point π΅ lies inside circle π, but
point π΄ lies outside circle π. We are also given that regular polygon π and regular polygon π are inscribed in circles ππ and ππ,
respectively, and that points πΆ and π· are vertices of π and points πΈ and πΉ are vertices of π. By the definition of an inscribed polygon, points πΆ and π· lie on ππ and points πΈ and πΉ lie on ππ.
We are also given that π intersects all four points πΆ, π·, πΈ, and πΉ.
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 4 From this information, we can draw the circles to look like this:
We are also given that points π·, π΅, and πΆ lie on a regular π-gon that is inscribed in π€π, and
points πΈ, π΅, and πΉ lie on a regular π-gon that is inscribed in π€π. By Lemma 1, we can conclude that
arc πΈπ΅πΉ has a measure that can be written in the form 2ππ1
π, where π1 is positive integer less than π,
and that arc π·π΅πΆ has a measure that can be written in the form 2ππ2
π, where π2 is positive integer less
than π. By Lemma 2, we know that measure of arc πΈπ΅πΉ = measure of arc πΈπ·πΉ and that measure of arc π·π΅πΆ = measure of arc π·πΈπΆ, so
we also know that arc πΈπ·πΉ has a measure that can be written in the form 2ππ1
π and that arc π·πΈπΆ has a
measure that can be written in the form 2ππ2
π. We again use Lemma 1 to solve the problem.
William Zhang 22072 Round 1 Problem 5 5. Let π(π₯) be a function with a domain of all nonnegative integers such that π(π₯) = ππ₯. (In other words, this
just means that π(π₯) is a function that returns the π₯π‘β term in the sequence.)
We are given that π(2) = 5, π(2014) = 2015, and π(π₯) = π(π(π₯ β 1)).
We will call the statement π(π₯) = π(π(π₯ β 1)) Theorem 1
In this solution, we will use the notation ππ(π₯) = π(π(π(β¦πβ π repeats of π
(π₯)β¦ ))), for example,
π4(π₯) = π (π (π(π(π₯)))).
A theorem that will be used often in this proof is π = π βΉ π(π) = π(π), for all functions π(π₯). In this proof, this theorem will be denoted as Theorem 2. Lemma 1: ππ(π₯) = ππ+1(π₯ β 1) for all positive integers π Proof for Lemma 1:
ππ(π₯) = ππβ1(π(π₯)) = ππβ1 (π(π(π₯ β 1))) = ππ+1(π₯ β 1)
Also, repeated use of this lemma results in ππ(π₯) = ππ+π(π₯ β π) where π β β and π < π. Lemma 2: ππ(3) = ππ(5).
Proof for Lemma 2: Using the property π(π₯) = π(π(π₯ β 1)) and π(2) = 5, we apply Theorem 2 twice to get
π(3) = π(π(2)) = π(5) βΉ ππβ1(π(3)) = ππβ1(π(5)) βΉ ππ(3) = ππ(5).
From here, we use Lemma 1 to get
π(4) = π2(3), π3(4) = π4(3), π5(4) = π6(3), π7(4) = π8(3),β¦ and
π2(5) = π3(4), π4(5) = π5(4), π6(5) = π7(4), π8(5) = π9(4),β¦. We can use Lemma 2 to get π2(3) = π2(5), π4(3) = π4(5), π6(3) = π6(5), π8(3) = π8(5),β¦ And then apply the transitive property on the previous three highlighted lines to get
π(4) = π2(3) = π2(5) = π3(4) = π4(3) = π4(5) = π5(4) = π6(3) = π6(5) = β― π(4) = π2(5) = π4(5) = π6(5) = β―.
We can use the statementππ(π₯) = ππ+π(π₯ β π) and the statement on the previous line to get π1(6) = π2(5) = π(4) π1(8) = π4(5) = π(4) π1(10) = π6(5) = π(4) β¦. Thus, we have π(4) = π(6) = π(8) = π(10) = β― = π(2014) = β―. By the transitive property, because π(2014) = 2015, we have π(4) = π(6) = π(8) = π(10) = β― = 2015. Let the statement on the previous line be called Lemma 3.
We can use the fact ππ(π₯) = ππ+π(π₯ β π) to get ππ(5) = ππ+2(3), so
π(5) = π3(3), π3(5) = π5(3), π5(5) = π7(3),β¦, and then we can use Lemma 2 to get π(3) = π(5), π3(3) = π3(5), π5(3) = π5(5),β¦. We can now use the equations on the previous two lines as well as the transitive property to get π(3) = π(5) = π3(3) = π3(5) = π5(3) = π5(5) = β― π(3) = π(5) = π3(5) = π5(5) = π7(5) = β―
William Zhang 22072 Round 1
Then we can use the equation ππ(π₯) = ππ+π(π₯ β π) again as well as the transitive property to get π1(7) = π3(5) = π(3) π1(9) = π5(5) = π(3) π1(11) = π7(5) = π(3) β¦ Now we can use the transitive property to get the equations π(3) = π(5) = π(7) = π(9) = π(11) = β― = π(2015) = β―. We can place all possible sequences π0, π1, π2, π3, π4, π5, π6, π7, π8, β¦ under exactly one of the following
three cases:
π1 = π(1) = 0
o π(1) = 0 βΉ π(π(1)) = π(0) by Theorem 2, and therefore
π(2) = π(0) = 5 because π(2) = π(π(1)) and π(2) = 5. We also have
π(1) = π(π(0)) = π(5), so
π(1) = 0 βΉ π(1) = π(5) = 0 βΉ π(π(5)) = π(0), where the last statement is true by
Theorem 1.
π(6) = 2015 by Lemma 3, and π(6) = π(π(5)) = π(0) = 5 would imply that 2015 = 5
which is a contradiction. Therefore, there are no possible sequences under this case.
π1 = π(1) = 1
o π(1) = 1 βΉ π(π(1)) = π(1) by Theorem 2, but we also have π(π(1)) = π(2) = 5, so by
transitive property, we would have π(1) = 5, which contradicts the statement π(1) = 1. Therefore, there are no possible sequences under this case.
π1 = π(1) = 2 o π(1) = 2 βΉ π(π(0)) = π(1) = 2. We can divide this case in which π1 = 2 into multiple
sub-cases.
If π(0) = 0, then π(π(0)) = π(0) = 0 by Theorem 1 and the transitive property,
which contradicts the statement π(π(0)) = 2.
If π(0) = 1, then our sequence becomes {ππ|π β β€β₯0} = 1, 2, 5, π(3), 2015, π(3), 2015, π(3), 2015,β¦ From here, we see that π(3) β {even numbers β₯ 4} βͺ {2015} clearly gives possible
values of π(3). On the other hand, we see that π(3) = 2 β π(π(3)) = π(2) = 5,
but π(4) = π(π(3)) β π(π(3)) = 2015 contradicts this. We also see that
π(3) β {positive odd numbers β 2015} β π(π(3)) = π(1), π(3), π(5), π(7), β¦
would give a contradiction to the statement π(4) = π(π(3)) β π(π(3)) = 2015
because if π(3) β 2015, then we see that π(any odd number) β 2015.
If π(0) = 2, then π(π(0)) = π(2) = 5 by Theorem 1 and because π(2) = 5, but
this contradicts the statement π(π(0)) = π(1) = 2.
If π(0) = 3, 5, 7, 9, β¦, then π(π(0)) = π(3), π(5), π(7), π(9), β¦ = π(3). We can use
the statement π(π(0)) = π(1) = 2 and transitive property to establish that
π(3) = 2 βΉ π(π(3)) = π(2) = 5 by Theorem 2, but by Theorem 1, we
have π(4) = π(π(3)), and Lemma 3 gives π(4) = 2015, so we would
have π(π(3)) = 2015, which contradicts π(π(3)) = 5, giving no possible
sequences under this case.
If π(0) = 4, 6, 8, 10,β¦, then π(π(0)) = π(4), π(6), π(8), π(10), β¦ = 2015, but this
contradicts the statement π(π(0)) = π(1) = 2 because 2015 β 2.
π1 = π(1) = 3, 5, 7, 9, 11,β¦ o π(1) = 3, 5, 7, 9, 11,β¦ βΉ π(π(1)) = π(3) by Theorem 2. (Remember that π(3) = π(5) =
π(7) = β―)
π(2) = π(π(1)) = 5 and π(π(1)) = π(3) would imply that 5 = π(3) = π(5) = π(7) = β―,
However, we have π(4) = 2015 and π(π(3)) = π(4), so π(π(3)) = 2015
π(3) = 5 βΉ π(π(3)) = π(5) = 5 by Theorem 2, which is a contradiction
because 2015 β 5. Therefore, there are no possible sequences under this case.
π1 = π(1) = 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,β¦ o Because π(π(π₯ β 1)) = π(π₯), we have π(π(1)) = π(2) = 5.
Therefore, we know that π(1) cannot be equal to 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,β¦ because
π(1) = 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,β¦ βΉ π(π(1)) = π(4), π(6), π(8), π(10), π(12),β¦ = 2015 by
Theorem 2, which gives a contradiction to the statement π(π(1)) = π(2) = 5
because 2015 β 5. After examining all possible cases, we conclude that π(2015) = π(3) β {even numbers β₯ 4} βͺ {2015}
π(2015) = π(3) β {even numbers β₯ 4} βͺ {2015}