VET-Pharma Q_A

7/31/2019 VET-Pharma Q_A

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PHARMACOLOGY Q&A

____1. Large doses of corticosteroids may produce:

a. nephritis

b. hepatopathy

c. encephalomalacia

d. neutropenia

e. amaurosis

____2. An example of a long-acting insulin is:

a. semi-lente insulin

b. lente insulin

c. insulin injection USP

d. protamine zinc insulin

e. isophane insulin

____3. Vasopressin acts on the cells of the renal collecting

duct by:

a. inhibiting microtubule formation

b. decreasing permeability to water of

the luminal membrane of the cell

c. stimulating formation of adenylate

cyclase

d. inhibiting phosphodiesterase

e. blocking chloride reabsorption

____4. The principal barrier to absorption of drugs applied

topically to the skin is:

a. the stratum germinativum

b. the stratum corneum

c. the stratum spinosum

d. the basement membrane

e. sebum

____5. Excretion of drugs by the kidneys is:

a. unaffected by variation in renal blood flow

b. generally more rapid if the drug is not extensively protein

bound

c. more rapid with drugs that are actively secreted by tubular

cells

d. always increased by administration of diuretics

e. a minor pathway for elimination of drugs

____6. The most fundamental action of steroidal hormones is:

a. modification of inflammation

b. lysis of lymphocytes in the blood

c. stimulation of synthesis of enzymes by target cells

d. deposition of depot fate. increased calcium concentration in

the

blood

____7. The corticosteroid with negligible effect on electrolyte

and water balance is:

a. cortisol

b. aldosterone

c. prednisolone

d. fludrocortisonee. dexamethasone

____8. Procaine is destroyed in the body by:

a. pseudocholinesterase

b. succinyl dehydrogenase

c. glucuronyl transferase

d. oxidation

e. azo reductase

____9. A toxic manifestation of dibucaine toxicity is:

a. agranulocytosis

b. coma

c. seizures

d. urticaria

e. hepatic lipidosis

____10. The drug that causes vasoconstriction at the site of

administration is:

a. procaine

b. lidocaine

c. benzocaine

d. tetracaine

e. cocaine


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2____11. The cathartic whose action is limited to the colon is:

a. castor oil

b. magnesium sulfate

c. cascara sagrada

d. docusate

e. liquid petrolatum

____12. Which of the following is a buffer antacid?

a. sodium bicarbonate

b. magnesium oxide

c. calcium carbonate

d. aluminum hydroxide

e. calcium hydroxide

____13. Prochlorperazine is least effective in prevention of

vomiting associated with:

a. vestibular stimulation

b. uremia

c. gastroenteritis

d. stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

e. radiation sickness

____14. At high serum concentrations, all of the following

antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade except?

a. polymyxin B

b. streptomycin

c. dicloxacillin

d. neomycin

e. gentamicin

____15. Which penicillin is acid-stable and, therefore, may be

given orally?

a. benzylpenicillin Gb. carbenicillin

c. ticarcillin

d. amoxicillin

e. methicillin

____16. Bacitracin is used exclusively:

a. by topical application

b. by oral administration

c. for enteric infections

d. by intravenous administration

e. for Pseudomonas infections

____17. Urinary pH might be intentionally altered as part of a

therapeutic regimen to accomplish all of the following except

to:

a. prevent formation of some calculi

b. decrease irritant properties of urine

c. increase the effectiveness of certain chemotherapeutic drugs

d. modify the pH of extracellular fluid

e. alter the rate of urinary excretion of another drug

____18. An undesirable side effect of hydrochlorothiazide

administered over an extended period is:

a. hypertension

b. hypokalemia

c. hypernatremia

d. hypocalcemia

e. metabolic acidosis

____19. The action of spironolactone is to block:

a. release of aldosterone

b. tubular resorption of sodium

c. tubular resorption of chloride

d. the effects of aldosterone on the distal tubule

e. the effect of vasopressin on the collecting duct

____20. Pain originating from the ureter is best managed with

a. opiates

b. aspirin

c. phenazopyridine

d. lidocainee. phenylbutazone

____21. Morphine sulfate:

a. stimulates the respiratory center

b. dilates the bronchioles

c. depresses the spinal cord

d. stimulates intestinal smooth muscle

e. dilates the pupil in dogs


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3____22. Meperidine is of little value in management of severe

pain in dogs and cats because it:

a. is highly toxic in these species

b. is metabolized very rapidly in these species

c. does not cross the blood-brain barrier

d. is slowly absorbed from the injection site

e. is rapidly excreted by the kidneys

____23. How many grams of potassium permanganate are

required to prepare 1 gallon of a 1:3000 solution?

a. 0.3

b. 1.3

c. 3.0

d. 13. 0

e. 30

____24. Five grains are equivalent to how many grams?

a. 0.75

b. 0.075

c. 300

d. 0.325

e. 7.50

____25. You wish to dilute strong tincture of iodine (7%) with

70% ethanol to prepare 4 oz of tincture of iodine USP (2%)

for use on small animals. How much ethanol and 7% iodine

must be used?

a. 3 fl oz of ethanol and 1 fl oz of 7% iodine

b. 50 ml of ethanol and 45 ml of 7% iodine

c. 160 ml of ethanol and 80 ml of 7% iodine

d. 86 ml of ethanol and 34 ml of 7% iodine

e. 45 ml of ethanol and 55 ml of 7% iodine

____26. The duration of action of thiopental is determined

primarily by:

a. biotransformation in extrahepatic tissues

b. hepatic biotransformation

c. renal excretion

d. biliary excretion

e. redistribution in the body

____27. As compared with oxybarbiturates, thiobarbiturates

are:

a. more lipid soluble

b. slower in onset of action

c. less potent

d. less toxic

e. less irritating to tissues

____28. The most rapid recovery of consciousness would be

expected after discontinuing administration of:

a. methoxyflurane

b. halothane

c. diethyl ether

d. nitrous oxide

e. enflurane

____29. Abnormal elimination behavior in a dog, caused by

separation anxiety, may be effectively treated with:

a. estradiol

b. amphetamine

c. Phenobarbital

d. primidone

e. amitriptyline

____30. In cats, prolonged therapy with progestins to curtail

urine spraying may cause any of the following side effects

except:

a. increased libido

b. mammary gland hyperplasia

c. hyperglycemia

d. endometritis in queens

e. suppressed spermatogenesis in toms

____31. Tubocurarine and gallamine:

a. produce a depolarizing type of blockade of the myoneural

junction

b. are rapidly absorbed following oral administration

c. action may be reversed by administering an

anticholinesterase

d. have long duration of action

e. are ganglionic-blocking drugs


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4____32. A skeletal muscle relaxant whose site of action is in

the central nervous system is:

a. mathocarbamol

b. methoxyflurane

c. decamethonium

d. succinylcholine

e. gallamine

____33. Vitamin K is:

a. synthesized in the small intestine

b. found in significant quantity in cereal

grain

c. absorbed from the gut in the absence of bile

d. essential from thrombin formation in blood vessels

e. found in alfalfa as phytonadione

____34. Chronic administration of which drug may lead to

clinical signs of thiamin deficiency?

a. trimethoprim

b. amprolium

c. chlortetracycline

d. levamisole

e. metronidazole

____35. Which fat-soluble vitamin acts as an antioxidant in

tissues?

a. A

b. B12

c. D

d. E

e. Q

____36. The best drug for removal ofFasciola hepatica fromsheep is:

a. fenbendazole

b. carbon tetrachloride

c. albendazole

d. phenothiazine

e. carbon disulfide

____37. The breed of dog that exhibits an idiosyncratic

reaction to ivermectin is the:

a. Great Dane

b. Golden Retriever

c. Dalmatian

d. Cocker Spaniel

e. Collie

____38. A generally safe and effective drug for treatment of

giardiasis in dogs is:

a. metronidazole

b. quinine

c. thiabendazole

d. pyrimethamine

e. nitrofurantoin

____39. The drug indicated for treatment of a hypotensive

reaction to acepromazine is:

a. doxapram

b. methylphenidate

c. epinephrine

d. phenylephrine

e. hydralazine

____40. Phenothiazine tranquilizers act by:

a. blocking central cholinergic receptors

b. blocking dopamine receptors

c. blocking resorption of norepinephrine

d. inhibiting monoamine oxidase

e. stimulating central serotonin receptors

____41. Tranquilizers produce:

a. anesthesia when given in large dosesb. decreased seizure activity

c. an emetic response

d. suppression of conditioned avoidance behavior

e. hypertension when given in large doses

____42. The apparent volume of distribution of a drug:

a. generally coincides with an anatomic space

b. is determined by the drugs rate of elimination


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5c. is useful for calculation of dosage intervals

d. determines the time required to attain a steady-state

concentration

e. is employed to compute the plasma concentration resulting

from a given dose of the drug

____43. The plasma disappearance curve for erythromycin in

cattle after an intravenous bolus injection appears to have 2

exponential phases, one with a half-life of 15.2 minutes and

one with a half-life of 3.2 hours. The most likely explanation

for this is that:

a. erythromycin induces its own metabolism, so that the rate

ofelimination increases with time

b. the rapid phase is due to distribution to the tissues, and only

the late phase is due to elimination from the body

c. the rapid phase is due to renal clearance, and the late phase

is due to hepatic metabolism

d. there may be uneven absorption from the blood

e. laboratory assay procedures were not sufficiently accurate

____44. Which drug is not useful in management of epilepsy?

a. phenobarbital

b. phenytoin

c. carbamazepine

d. thiopental

e. valproic acid

____45.Chronic administration of barbiturates to an epileptic

dog may reduce the response to other anticonvulsant drugs

because of:

a. tolerance due to decreased receptor sensitivity

b. increased rate of excretion

c. accelerated rate of biotransformationd. increased volume of distribution

e. impaired intestinal absorption

____46.A side effect that appears to be unique to phenytoin is:

a. vestibular disturbances

b. gingival hyperplasia

c. sedation

d. heaptic toxicity

e. tinnitus

____47. The best solution for disinfecting a stall contaminated

by viruses, bacterial spores and helminth ova is:

a. saponated cresol

b. mercuric chloride

c. povidone-iodine

d. hot sodium hydroxide

e. chloramine-T

____48. The most effective bactericidal agent available within

a veterinary hospital is:

a. ultraviolet light

b. steam

c. ethanol

d. ethylene oxide

e. soap

____49. What is the effect of propantheline on the gut?

a. spasmogenic

b. antimuscarinic and ganglioplegic

c. stimulates motility

d. increases secretion by intestinal glands

e. evacuates the colon

____50. A dog is presented to you with diarrhea and vomiting

You determine that the patient has bacterial enteritis, which

you treat with prochlorperazine, isopropamide and neomycin.

The dog consumes adequate water ad libitum and is well

hydrated. After 3 days, the bladder is distended and the dog

does not urinate. What is the most likely cause of the

problem?

a. The dog has pollakiuria.b. The dog may be sensitive to the action of isopropamide.

c. The prochlorperazine is depressing the central nervous

system, abolishing the micturition reflex.

d. The neomycin may block bladder contraction at the

myoneural junction.

e. The patient has become hypokalemic.


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6____51. The action of heparin is promptly terminated by:

a. sodium fluoride

b. methylene blue

c. perphenazine

d. protamine

e. sodium citrate

____52. Iron is not:

a. conserved by the body

b. regulated in its absorption

c. necessary to prevent anemia

d. found primarily in hemoglobin and myoglobin

e. absorbed well in the ferric state

____53. An anticoagulant that is suitable for systemic

administration is:

a. calcium EDTA

b. dicumarol

c. sodium fluoride

d. thromboplastin

e. sodium oxalate

____54. United States Food and Drug Administration

regulations require that benzathine penicillin G must not be

used in beef steers for at least how many days before

slaughter?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 10

d. 20

e. 30

____55. Lactated Ringers solution should not be mixed with:a. calcium chloride

b. potassium chloride

c. sodium chloride

d. sodium bicarbonate

e. potassium acetate

____56. The compendium of drug standards for potency,

purity and quality that is officially recognized in the Food,

Drug and Cosmetics Act is called the:

a. US Dispensatory

b. US Pharmacopeia/ National Formulary

c. Physicians Desk Reference

d. National Formulary

e. Drug Facts and Comparisons

____57. Norepinephrine and phenylephrine decrease the heart

rate by:

a. directly depressing the cardioaccelerator center in the

medulla

b. decreasing the peripheral blood flow

c. activating a baroreceptor reflex

d. decreasing bronchial muscle tone

e. exerting a direct negative inotropic effect

____58. Which of the following is a contraindication to

quinidine therapy?

a. atrial fibrillation

b. hypokalemia

c. nephritis

d. complete heart block

e. concurrent use of digoxin

____59. The best drug for suppressing a ventricular

arrhythmia is:

a. lidocaine

b. calcium gluconate

c. quinidine

d. digoxin

e. aminophylline

____60. In response to injury, phospholipase A2 is activated

in the cellular membrane, where it hydrolyzes phospholipids

to cause release of:

a. prostaglandins

b. cyclooxygenase

c. arachidonic acid

d. leukotriene A4


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7e. prostanoic acid

____61. Which eicosanoid induces aggregation of platelets in

the circulation?

a. prostacyclin

b. prostaglandin E2

c. leukotriene C4

d. thromboxane A2

e. prostaglandin H2

____62. Antihistaminic drugs are frequently used in patients

with pulmonary disease. However, there is little evidence of

their efficacy in this situation and their use may be deleterious

because:

a. they promote drying of the respiratory tract epithelium

b. histamine plays a useful role in compensating for

pulmonary disease

c. they depress the respiratory centers

d. they produce sedation

e. they stimulate the cough reflex

____63. A calf develops signs of an anaphylactoid reaction

after administration of procaine penicillin. This animal is most

appropriately treated immediately with:

a. an antihistaminic

b. a corticosteroid

c. penicillinase

d. intravenous fluids

e. epinephrine

____64. What is the drug of choice for topical treatment of an

infected thermal burn?

a. neomycin ointmentb. petrolatum

c. povidone-iodine solution

d. tannic acid spray

e. silver sulfadiazine cream

____65. Burrows solution is employed in wet dressings

because of its:

a. emollient effect

b. depilatory action

c. demulcent effect

d. astringent action

e. effect on pigmentation

____66. Which combination of antibacterials is antagonistic in

dermatologic use?

a. soap and benzalkonium chloride

b. neomycin and polymyxin

c. alcohol and iodine

d. bacitracin and neomycin

e. soap and alcohol

____67. Drugs used to treat newborn animals must be

carefully selected because:

a. neonates are unable to metabolize drugs

b. neonates have poorly developed drug receptors

c. correct dosage ranges have not been determined

d. neonates have poorly developed excretory organs

e. neonates absorb drugs poorly from the intestine

____68. Sulfamethazine is an acidic drug with a pKa of 7.4.

Concerning disposition of this drug in the body, which

statement is most accurate?

a. It is more readily eliminated from the body when the urine

is acidic.

b. It diffuses into the stomach (pH 2.0) and is trapped there

due to ionization.

c. It is more readily eliminated from the body when the urine

is alkaline.

d. It is almost entirely ionized in the blood.

e. It is almost entirely nonionized in the blood.

____69. Which of the following is not produced by

glucocorticoid administration?

a. increased gluconeogenesis

b. depressed protein catabolism

c. eosinopenia

d. monocytopenia

e. neutrophilia


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8____70. The approximate daily rate of secretion of

corticosteroids by the adrenal cortices in a healthy dog is:

a. 50 pg/kg

b. 200 ng/kg

c. 10 ng/kg

d. 1 mg/kg

e. 5 mg/kg

____71. Which drug does not produce local anesthesia when

applied topically?

a. lidocaine

b. benzocaine

c. dibucaine

d. procaine

e. phenol

____72. Gastric acid secretion is nearly abolished by:

a. atropine

b. omeprazole

c. metoclopramide

d. neostigmine

e. pentagastrin

____73. Which cathartic may be given safely to a lactating

sow nursing a litter of piglets?

a. cascara

b. aloe

c. castor oil

d. liquid petrolatum

e. croton oil

____74. Excessive gastric acid secretion, as seen with

mastocytoma, can be controlled by administration of:a. atropine

b. betazole

c. cimetidine

d. diphenhydramine

e. phenoxybenzamine

____75. Penicillins:

a. readily diffuse into cerebrospinal fluid

b. are extensively metabolized by the liver

c. have long elimination half-lives

d. are useful for treating intestinal infections

e. are rapidly excreted in urine

____76. Sulfonamides act against bacteria by:

a. inhibiting cell wall synthesis

b. interfering with bacterial metabolism

c. inhibiting protein synthesis

d. interfering with membrane function

e. impairing protein synthesis

____77. The renal toxicity associated with chronic

sulfonamide therapy is:

a. related to water solubility at a particular urinary pH

b. diminished by using a single sulfonamide

c. independent of urinary volume

d. related to neural function

e. least common with sulfathiazole

____78. Clinical signs associated with water intoxication are

related to:

a. edema of the brain

b. ascites

c. hydrothorax

d. nephrosis

e. dehydration of the mucosae

____79. Thiazides induce diuresis by:

a. inhibiting secretions from the posterior pituitary gland

b. dilating the efferent arterioles in kidneys

c. increasing systemic blood pressure

d. inhibiting sodium resorptione. increasing extracellular fluid volume

____80. The primary difference among the diuretics

chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide and bendroflumethiazide

is in their:

a. mechanism of action

b. potency

c. ceiling effect


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9d. safety

e. efficacy

____81. Aspirin:

a. has no antiinflammatory effects

b. produces hypothermia with overdoses

c. is eliminated more rapidly by dogs than pigs

d. is effective in reducing visceral pain

e. inhibits cyclooxygenase

____82. Which drug antagonizes the effects of opiates?

a. pentobarbital

b. pentylenetetrazol

c. naloxone

d. doxapram

e. haloperidol

____83. In a dog with pain from rheumatoid arthritis, the most

appropriate analgesic for occasional home use is:

a. aspirin

b. morphine

c. allopurinol

d. chlorpheniramine

e. colchicine

____84. You want to treat a 20-kg dog with oral tetracycline

at 25 mg/kg daily. The drug is available in 125-mg and 250-

mg capsules. How many capsules should you prescribe for a

5-day course of treatment?

a. 10 125-mg capsules

b. 10 250-mg capsules

c. 20 250-mg capsules

d. 30 125-mg capsulese. 45 125-mg capsules

____85. Though halothane is a widely used inhalant

anesthetic, a disadvantage is that it:

a. can depress the medulla

b. has powerful hypotensive effects

c. is a respiratory depressant

d. can cause renal necrosis

e. is expensive to use

____86. Induction of anesthesia with methoxyflurane is

relatively slow because it:

a. has a high vapor pressure

b. crosses alveolar membranes with difficulty

c. is soluble in blood

d. is highly irritating to the respiratory tract

e. decreases perfusion of the lungs

____87. The principal danger associated wit use of nitrous

oxide during inhalation anesthesia is:

a. explosion

b. cardiac arrhythmia

c. metabolic alkalosis

d. hypoxia

e. hemolysis

____88. A drug that can stimulate the appetite in an anorexic

patient is:

a. chlorpromazine

b. amphetamine

c. haloperidol

d. diazepam

e. reserpine

____89. Overactivity and intolerance to restraint

(hyperkinesis) in a dog is appropriately treated with:

a. acepromazine

b. methylphenidate

c. phenytoin

d. mephenesin

e. valproic acid

____90. In treatment of malignant hyperthermia, dantrolene

acts by:

a. uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation in the liver

b. decreasing release of calcium from the sarcoplastic

reticulum

c. increasing radiant heat loss through cutaneous vasodilation

d. depressing the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center

e. suppressing release of endogenous pyrogen


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____91. Botulinus toxin acts by:

a. stimulating release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the

spinal cord

b. blocking sodium channels in motor nerves

c. blocking depolarization of muscle end plates

d. blocking release of acetylcholine from vesicles in motor

nerve endings

e. causing persistent depolarization of skeletal muscle

____92. Which drug facilitates removal of lipid from a fatty

liver?

a. nandrolone decanoate

b. dexamethasone

c. methionine

d. pitressin

e. chloroform

____93. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of

vitamin D, is synthesized in the:

a. liver

b. skin

c. kidney

d. gut

e. bone

____94. Avidin, a glycoprotein contained in egg white, can

cause a deficiency of what vitamin when raw eggs are fed?

a. pyridoxine

b. niacin

c. riboflavin

d. biotin

e. pantothenic acid

____95. Coccidiosis is the most serious parasitic disease seen

in rabbitries. An outbreak can be prevented or controlled by

treating the drinking water or feed with:

a. quinacrine

b. monensin

c. amprolium

d. sulfaquinoxaline

e. hexachlorophene

____96. In cattle, a drug that is effective against the

intermediate stage of the human tapeworm Taenia saginata is:

a. niclosamide

b. bunamidine

c. tetramisole

d. praziquantel

e. arecoline

____97. Heartworm disease can be prevented in dogs living in

enzootic areas by administering, at monthly intervals, the

larvicidal drug:

a. dithiazanine

b. ivermectin

c. thiacetarsamide

d. diethylcarbamazine

e. levamisole

____98. Paralysis of the retractor penis muscle caused by

phenothiazine tranquilizers has been observed in:

a. bulls

b. boars

c. stallions

d. rams

e. bucks

____99. A tranquilizer that is approved in the United States

for use in swine to control aggression and fighting is:

a. acepromazine

b. xylazine

c. chlorpromazine

d. droperidole. azaperone

____100. Which of the following is not an effect of

phenothiazine tranquilizers?

a. decreased secretion of prolactin

b. hypotension with use of large doses

c. prevention of vomiting associated with uremia

d. reduced packed cell volume in horses


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11e. sedation

____101. A drug that has affinity for and interacts with a cell

receptor to elicit a response is called:

a. an agonist

b. a competitive antagonist

c. an incomplete antagonist

d. a potentiating agent

e. an enzyme inducer

____102. A graded dose-response curve is an indication of:

a. an all-or-none phenomenon

b. a lethal dose of a drug

c. the extent of receptor occupancy

d. relative safety

e. individual variation

____103. Atropine dilates the pupil of the eye by antagonizing

the effects of acetylcholine on the pupillary constrictor

muscle. This effect is known as:

a. cyclodialysis

b. phthisis

c. miosis

d. mydriasis

e. cyclodamia

____104. The drug of choice for immediate treatment of status

epilepticus is:

a. diazepam

b. acepromazine

c. dantrolene

d. valproic acid

e. dexamethasone

____105. A cationic detergent is one in which the

hydrophobic portion is positively charged. An example is:

a. sodium orthophenylphenate

b. tincture of green soap

c. benzalkonium chloride

d. sodium hypochlorite

e. sapinated cresol

____106. A disinfectant that is suitable and economical for

use on the floor of dairy barns is:

a. alkyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium (Roccal- D)

b. sodium hypochlorite

c. creolin

d. phenol

e. chlorinated lime

____107. A bitch is presented to you because of increased

frequency of urination. A Grams stain of the urinary sediment

reveals many Gram-negative rods. You prescribe sulfisoxazole

therapy. Which drug is most appropriate to relieve the

pollakiuria, as this is a nuisance to the owner?

a. ephedrine

b. bethanechol

c. propantheline

d. ammonium chloride

e. furosemide

____108. A clinical sign of deadly nightshade or Jimson weed

poisoning in horses is:

a. bradycardia

b. anhydrosis

c. miosis

d. profuse diarrhea

e. xerostomia

____109. Atropine exerts its main therapeutic effect at

receptors in the:

a. central nervous system

b. neuromuscular junction

c. autonomic gangliad. parasympathetic effector organs

e. postganglionic parasympathetic nerves

____110. All of the following participate in production of

erythrocytes and hemoglobin synthesis and might be given for

treatment of anemia except:

a. manganese

b. iron


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12c. copper

d. cobalt

e. folic acid

____111. A drug that significantly stimulates neutrophilic

granulocytosis is:

a. progesterone

b. phenylbutazone

c. hydrocortisone

d. estradiol

e. erythropoietin

____112. Heparin:

a. is rapidly inactivated in the lungs

b. has a long biological half-life

c. binds calcium ions

d. acts to antagonize thrombin

e. can be used to decrease clotting time

____113. To dispense or prescribe controlled substances in the

United States, a veterinarian must be licensed to practice and

be registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration,

which is a division of the:

a. US Department of Justice

b. US Food and Drug Administration

c. US Department of the Treasury

d. Customs Department

e. US Department of Agriculture

____114. Bradycardia of vagal origin may be diagnosed by

administering:

a. isoproterenol

b. phentolaminec. atropine

d. phenylephrine

e. atenolol

____115. The drug that decreases contractility of the

ventricular myocardium is:

a. calcium chloride

b. epinephrine

c. digoxin

d. propranolol

e. isoproterenol

____116. The cause of death from intoxication by digitalis

glycosides is:

a. respiratory failure

b. ventricular fibrillation

c. hypokalemia

d. renal failure

e. hepatic failure

____117. Eicosanoids are involved in all of the following

physiologic functions except:

a. regulation of heat production

b. regression of the corpus luteum

c. blood clotting

d. renal failure

e. hepatic failure

____118. As a veterinarian, you must exercise extreme

caution when handling prostaglandin F2alpha and its synthetic

analogs because absorption through the skin can cause:

a. myocardial infarction

b. abortion in pregnant women and/or asthmatic attacks

c. psychotic episodes

d. lupus erythematosus

e. vomiting and diarrhea

____119. Which of the following is not an effect of histamine?

a. increased secretion of gastric acid

b. pruritus from stimulation of sensory nerve endings

c. increased salivationd. slowing of the heart rate

e. dilation of arterioles

____120. Captopril and enalapril are used to relieve

vasoconstriction and reduce fluid retention associated with

congestive heart failure. These desirable effects are the result

of:

a. blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors


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13b. inhibition of angiotensin II production

c. decreased renal excretion of sodium

d. stimulation of renin release

e. blockade of dopamine receptors

____121. Whitfields ointment is used as a:

a. protective

b. sunscreen

c. keratolytic

d. depilatory

e. disinfectant

____122. Which of the following is the most appropriate

vehicle for a drug to be applied to an acutely inflamed area of

skin?

a. petrolatum

b. collodion

c. alcohol

d. water

e. lanolin

____123. The drug that specifically stimulates cold receptors

in the skin to evoke a sensation of coolness is:

a. camphor

b. menthol

c. benzoin

d. phenol

e. aloe

____124. Probenecid is an acidic drug with a pKa of 3.4.

Using the equation below, what is the approximate ratio of the

number of molecules ionized to the number not ionized at the

pH of blood?Ci

pH = pKa + log

Cn

a. 1:1

b. 100:1

c. 1000:1

d. 10,000:1

e. 1:1000

____125. The phenomenon caused by chronic administration

of certain drugs and characterized by hepatomegaly, increased

protein content of the liver, and increased microsomal enzyme

activity is known as:

a. induction

b. inhibition

c. enhancement

d. incompatibility

e. drug interaction

____126. The duration of action of a given steroid is shortest

following the intramuscular injection of which of the

following esters?

a. succinate

b. acetate

c. acetonide

d. diacetate

e. pivalate

____127. The rationale for administration of an intermediate-

acting corticosteroid on alternate days during a chronic course

of therapy is that this regimen:

a. enhances efficacy

b. corresponds with the diurnal cycle

c. reduces the degree of atrophy of the adrenal cortex

d. is more convenient for the owner

e. reduces retention of potassium

____128. Neostigmine is indicated for treatment of:

a. peritonitis

b. ileus

c. intussusceptiond. diarrhea

e. obstruction of the colon

____129. A drug that stimulates gastric emptying, relaxation

of the pyloric sphincter, and increased tone of the esophageal

sphincter is:

a. metoclopramide

b. atropine


14/31

14c. morphine

d. epinephrine

e. haloperidol

____130. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are characterized by

their:

a. bacteriostatic effect

b. inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

c. potential neurotoxicity

d. good absorption from the gut

e. hepatic toxicity

____131. Erythromycin:

a. is concentrated in bile

b. has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity

c. may cause blood dyscrasias

d. should not be given with streptomycin

e. is not absorbed from the gut

____132. Griseofulvin is:

a. effective in treatment of yeast infections

b. limited in its distribution to the skin

c. more poorly absorbed when given with a fatty meal

d. incorporated into the keratin of skin and hair

e. immediately effective in treatment of ringworm

____133. Furosemide induces diuresis by:

a. inhibiting carbonic anhydrase

b. antagonizing aldosterone

c. inhibiting resorption of chloride in the loop of Henle

d. decreasing permeability of the renal collecting ducts

e. inhibiting sodium resorption in the proximal tubule

____134. The drug that primarily acts to increase osmotic

pressure of blood plasma is:

a. mannitol

b. mersalyl

c. chlorothiazide

d. acetazolamide

e. dextrose

____135. The effects of methotrexate may be antagonized

by:

a. folic acid

b. folinic acid

c. aminopterin

d. cyanocobalamin

e. panthothenic acid

____136. The system most sensitive to the toxic effects of

antineoplastic drugs is the:

a. respiratory system

b. endocrine system

c. urinary system

d. gastrointestinal system

e. cardiovascular system

____137. Bone marrow suppression produced by methotrexate

can be ameliorated by administration of:

a. stanozolol

b. daunorubicin

c. leucovorin

d. prednisolone

e. cobaltous chloride

____138. The drug that effectively controls severe visceral

pain is:

a. aspirin

b. phenylbutazone

c. indomethacin

d. methadone

e. acetanilide

____139. The species most sensitive to xylazine is:

a. cattle

b. swine

c. horses

d. dogs

e. cats


15/31

15____140. In aspirin poisoning, the rate of excretion of

salicylate is increased by treatment with:

a. ammonium chloride

b. ascorbic acid

c. caffeine

d. sodium bicarbonate

e. furosemide

____141. A horse that has been treated with chloral hydrate

may subsequently show glucosuria because:

a. chloral hydrate stimulates release of epinephrine from the

adrenal gland

b. chloral hydrate decreases glucose utilization by the tissues

c. the metabolite urochloralic acid is a reducing substance

d. chloral hydrate decreases the renal threshold for glucose

e. the renal tubules are damaged by chloral hydrate

____142. The sedative that does not undergo

biotransformation in the body is:

a. barbital

b. chloral hydrate

c. pentobarbital

d. phenobarbital

e. thiopental

____143. A nutritional disease of young swine raised in the

midwestern United States, in which muscular dystrophy and

necrotic lesions of the liver are prominent, is caused by a

deficiency of:

a. iron

b. selenium

c. vitamin A

d. zince. vitamin B6

____144. Blacktongue, an uncommon but classic nutritional

disease of dogs, is cured by treatment with:

a. pyridoxine

b. thiamin

c. molybdenum

d. choline

e. niacin

____145. Which drugs lower the seizure threshold and may

induce extrapyramidal motor effects?

a. phenothiazines

b. benzodiazepines

c. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

d. butyrophenones

e. tricyclics

____146. All of the following have been observed as adverse

reactions to acepromazine except:

a. vicious behavior

b. anaphylaxis

c. hypotension

d. sudden collapse

e. urinary retention

____147. An injectable drug that you could employ for

treating Trichuris vulpis infection in a dog is:

a. butamisole

b. fenbendazole

c. disophenol

d. dichlorvos

e. thenium

____148. Concerning the benzimidazole anthelmintics, which

statement is least accurate?

a. These drugs act to interfere with energy production in

susceptible parasites.

b. All members of the group are relatively insoluble in water.

c. This group has a high potential for causing toxic reactions.

d. Most of the drugs in this group present little hazard ofviolative residues in food.

e. This group of drugs has a broad spectrum of activity against

many of the helminths found in domestic animals.

____149. If a drug has a biological half-life of 17 hours in

cattle, approximately how long should the drug be withheld

before slaughter, so that the animals meat does not contain

drug residue?


16/31

16a. 17 hours

b. 8.5 hours

c. 34 hours

d. 7 days

e. 85 hours

____150. If the half-life of tetracycline in dogs is 6 hours and

a therapeutic dose is given every 8 hours, how many hours

will it take to attain a plateau in the mean plasma

concentration of the drug?

a. 16 hours

b. 24 hours

c. 30 hours

d. 48 hours

e. 64 hours

____151. A vasoconstrictive autonomic drug that is useful in

management of epistaxis is:

a. phenylephrine

b. propranolol

c. isoproterenol

d. phenoxybenzamine

e. vasopressin

____152. Isoproterenol is a nonselective beta receptor agonist.

All of the following effects would occur after its intravenous

administration to a cow except:

a. bronchiolar dilation

b. increased cardiac output

c. decreased peripheral resistance

d. increased mean blood pressure

e. decreased intestinal motility

____153. A cholinergic alkaloid commonly used topically to

produce miosis is:

a. arecoline

b. muscarine

c. pilocarpine

d. methacholine

e. neostigmine

____154. A drug used to convert atrial fibrillation to a

normal sinus rhythm in horses is:

a. aminophylline

b. epinephrine

c. nitroglycerin

d. quinidine

e. digitalis

____155. A condition that increases the cardiotoxicity of

digoxin is:

a. hypercalcemia

b. hyperkalemia

c. hyperglycemia

d. congestive heart failure

e. pulmonary edema

____156. Morphine is useful in management of acute

pulmonary edema because it:

a. produces diuresis

b. reduces pulmonary capillary pressure

c. dilates bronchioles

d. reduces pain

e. stimulates respiration

____157. In which species does salicylate exhibit the shortest

elimination half-life?

a. cattle

b. rabbits

c. dogs

d. cats

e. people

____158. An effective analgesic- antipyretic drug that hasweak anti-inflammatory activity is:

a. aspirin

b. phenylbutazone

c. dipyrone

d. acetophenetidin

e. caffeine


17/31

17____159. Chloramphenicol and quinidine may interact with

other drugs by:

a. protein binding displacement

b. inhibiting microsomal enzymes

c. enhancing renal excretion of other drugs

d. chemically reacting with other drugs

e. enhancing the action of hepatic enzymes

____160. Drugs found in high concentrations in fat are also

likely to be found in high concentrations in:

a. bone

b. muscle

c. kidney

d. brain

e. lymph nodes

____161. The best route for administration of a drug that

forms a very alkaline solution is:

a. intravenous

b. subcutaneous

c. intramuscular

d. intraperitoneal

e. intrathecal

____162. Concerning cortisol, which statement is least

accurate?

a. It reduces inflammation.

b. It indirectly inhibits phospholipase A2.

c. It promotes gluconeogenesis.

d. It increases muscular strength.

e. It promotes sodium retention and

potassium loss.

____163. Fluorination of a steroid nucleus has the effect of:

a. inactivating the molecule

b. increasing potency

c. decreasing glucocorticoid activity

d. decreasing mineralocorticoid activity

e. increasing aqueous solubility

____164. The sulfonamide preferred for ophthalmic use

because of neutrality of its sodium salt is:

a. sulfisoxazole

b. sulfamerazine

c. sulfapyridine

d. sulfamethoxazole

e. sulfacetamide

____165. An antimicrobial drug whose use in food-producing

animals is specifically forbidden by United States Food and

Drug Administration regulations is:

a. oxytetracycline

b. ampicillin

c. chloramphenicol

d. sulfamethazine

e. tylosin

____166. An antibacterial drug that is poorly absorbed

following oral administration with milk is:

a. oxytetracycline

b. erythromycin

c. sulfisoxazole

d. amoxicillin

e. chloramphenicol

____167. A selective antineoplastic drug is one whose action

is relatively specific against a certain type of tumor. An

example of a selective antineoplastic drug is:

a. streptozocin

b. adriamycin

c. cyclophosphamide

d. methotrexate

e. prednisolone

____168. Cyclophosphamide is likely to be least effective in a

patient with severe:

a. renal insufficiency

b. immunodeficiency

c. dermatitis

d. hypoproteinemia

e. hepatic insufficiency


18/31

18____169. Rapid induction of anesthesia by administration of

an inhalant anesthetic is primarily due to the low:

a. potency of the gas

b. partial pressure of the gas in the central nervous system

c. solubility of the gas in blood

d. rate of metabolism of the gas

e. respiratory rate

____170. Halothane anesthesia is characterized by:

a. profound analgesia

b. relatively poor muscle relaxation

c. sensitization of chlolinergic receptors

d. increased peripheral vascular resistance

e. hypotension in deeper planes of anesthesia

____171. The drug that is not suitable for use as a sole

anesthetic agent for abdominal laparotomy in a dog is:

a. halothane

b. ketamine

c. pentobarbital

d. enflurane

e. ethyl ether

____172. The bioavailability of chloramphenicol in a steer is

very low after oral administration because the drug:

a. does not cross the ruminal epithelium

b. is destroyed within the rumen

c. has an enterohepatic cycle

d. is metabolized by the liver

e. has low lipid solubility

____173. Phenylpropanolamine is often effective in control of

urinary incontinence because it:a. stimulates release of vasopressin by the pituitary gland

b. inhibits contraction of the detrusor muscle by blocking

cholinergic receptors

c. increases tone of the internal urethral sphincter by

stimulating alpha receptors

d. decreases renal blood flow

e. blocks serotonin receptors in the hypothalamus

____174. Bethanechol administered subcutaneously:

a. increases the capacity of the urinary bladder

b. decreases secretory activity of the gastrointestinal tract

c. constricts the ileocecal sphincter

d. induces bradycardia

e. causes mydriasis

____175. Ephedrine is:

a. effective when given per os

b. a long-acting catecholamine

c. metabolized largely by catechol-O-methyltransferase

d. without effect on denervated tissue

e. an ergot alkaloid

____176. What property of the cardiac glycosides is employed

in the process of digitalization?

a. rapid excretion

b. rapid biotransformation

c. potency

d. accumulation in the body

e. low water solubility

____177. A drug used to treat atrial fibrillation is:

a. aminophylline

b. lidocaine

c. nitroglycerin

d. epinephrine

e. procainamide

____178. Peripheral vasodilators are employed in treatment of

congestive heart failure. Their beneficial effect is due to

decreasing the work load of the heart. The drug thataccomplishes this by dilating arterioles in peripheral vascular

beds is:

a. milrinone

b. hydralazine

c. nitroprusside

d. verapamil

e. ouabain


19/31

19____179. Concerning phenylbutazone, which statement is

least accurate?

a. It has a long half-life in cattle and people.

b. It is highly bound to serum albumin.

c. It blocks the painful response to injected prostaglandin E2.

d. It is converted by the liver to an active metabolite.

e. It may cause blood dyscrasia in dogs and cats.

____180. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is

most useful for prevention of intravascular thrombosis when

administered chronically in small doses is:

a. flunixin meglumine

b. aspirin

c. phenylbutazone

d. meclofenamic acid

e. sodium salicylate

____181. Nonpolar drugs are slowly excreted by the kidneys

because they:

a. do not pass through the glomerulus

b. are protein bound

c. are insoluble in water

d. are resorbed by the tubular epithelium

e. do not have a favorable pKa

____182. Most drugs are absorbed into the circulation by:

a. facilitated diffusion

b. pinocytosis

c. simple diffusion

d. active transport

e. osmosis

____183. Biotransformation usually alters a drug so as to:a. make it more toxic

b. make it less toxic

c. make it less water soluble

d. make it more polar

e. improve its distribution

____184. Clinical doses of prednisolone in dogs:

a. inhibit fibroblastic activity

b. increase glucose utilization by tissues

c. increase plasma calcium levels

d. produce eosinophilia

e. decrease resorption of sodium by the kidneys

____185. A serious adverse effect of estrogens in dogs is:

a. gynecomastia

b. toxic hepatitis

c. pancytopenia

d. anorexia

e. hypoprothrombinemia

____186. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to

use of corticosteroids?

a. ketosis

b. ulcerative keratitis

c. allergic dermatitis

d. arthritis

e. lupus erythematosus

____187. The drug that is extensively metabolized in the liver

is:

a. ampicillin

b. chloramphenicol

c. streptomycin

d. tetracycline

e. gentamicin

____188. You have a patient with acute hepatitis and bacterial

pneumonia. Which drug is most likely to be safe and effective

for treatment of the infection?a. chloramphenicol

b. gentamicin

c. erythromycin

d. chlortetracycline

e. metronidazole


20/31

20____189. Which route of administration is most appropriate

for sulfonamide therapy in domestic animals?

a. subcutaneous

b. intramuscular

c. intraperitoneal

d. intravenous

e. intraocular

____190. Dose-related cardiac damage is an important toxic

effect of the chemotherapeutic agent:

a. mithramycin

b. doxorubicin

c. 5-fluorouracil

d. chlorambucil

e. cytosine arabinoside

____191. Vincristine, a plant alkaloid used in oncologic

therapy, inhibits cell division by:

a. alkylating the strands of DNA

b. inhibiting synthesis of purines

c. antagonizing folic acid

d. arresting mitosis

e. preventing transcription

____192. Yohimbine promptly reverses the sedative action of:

a. phenobarbital

b. diazepam

c. acepromazine

d. xylazine

e. ketamine

____193. The drug that is useful to inhibit insulin secretion by

an islet-cell adenoma is:a. diazoxide

b. chlorpropamide

c. 5% dextrose solution

d. chlorothiazide

e. tolbutamide

____194. The preparation with the longest duration of

action is:

a. posterior pituitary injection USP

b. vasopressin injection USP

c. vasopressin tannate injection USP

d. arginine vasopressin

e. lysine vasopressin

____195. Oral hypoglycemic drugs generally are not useful in

management of diabetes mellitus in dogs because:

a. they are extremely toxic in dogs

b. there are insufficient numbers of functional beta cells in

diabetic dogs

c. they are very rapidly metabolized in dogs

d. they are poorly absorbed

e. they tend to cause intractable diarrhea

____196. Under normal conditions of use, the drug with 100%

probability of causing toxic side effects is:

a. oxytetracycline

b. amantadine

c. amphotericin B

d. nystatin

e. acyclovir

____197. A drug with both antibacterial and antifungal actions

when applied topically is:

a. undecylenic acid

b. tolnaftate

c. thiabendazole

d. cuprimyxin

e. miconazole

____198. The efficacy of ketoconazole for treatment of

blastomycosis may be compromised if the patient is also

receiving ranitidine because:

a. the ketoconazole will be poorly absorbed

b. ranitidine will increase the rate of biotransformation of

ketoconazole

c. the ketoconazole will not be converted to its active

metabolite


21/31

21d. ranitidine stimulates proliferation of the pathogen

e. the patient will be immunocompromised

____199. A complication resulting from insulin therapy in

diabetic patients is:

a. hypokalemia

b. metabolic acidosis

c. dehydration

d. hyponatremia

e. acute renal shutdown

____200. Prednisone is used as a primary cytotoxic drug for

treatment of:

a. pancreatic carcinoma

b. adrenocortical carcinoma

c. melanoma

d. mastocytoma

e. lymphocytic leukemia

____201. The sympathomimetic effect of cocaine is associated

with:

a. blockade of sodium channels

b. inhibition of monoamine oxidase

c. enhanced release of the neuromediator

d. blockade of calcium channels

e. blockade of norepinephrine resorption

____202. The best drug for treatment of anaplasmosis in a

steer is:

a. ceftiofur

b. oxytetracycline

c. kanamycind. sulfamerazine

e. ampicillin

____203. The most commonly observed adverse effect of

fluoroquinolone antimicrobials in juvenile animals is:

a. agranulocytosis

b. colonic ulceration

c. damage to articular cartilage

d. lower-nephron nephrosis

e. anosmia


22/31

22ANSWERS

1. b- Corticosteroids cause hepatomegaly and elevated serum

alkaline phosphatase activity.

2. d- Protamine zinc insulin is slowly absorbed from the

injection site.

3. c- Agonist-bound V2 receptor activates the enzyme to cause

accumulation of cyclic AMP in the cell, with resultant

increased permeability of the luminal membrane.

4. b- The stratum corneum is relatively impermeable to many

molecules.

5. c- Such drugs have a large renal clearance limited primarily

by renal blood flow.

6. c- Adrenal and gonadal steroid hormones enhance

transcription of specific genes to increase synthesis of

the enzymes. The other answer choices are secondary

actions.

7. e- The methyl group at the 16-position

abolishes the corticosteroid effect on

electrolyte excretion.

8. a- Procaine is hydrolyzed by serum and

hepatic esterases.

9. c- Local anesthetics may cause

convulsions. The other answer

choices are unrelated to dibucaine.

10. e- Cocaine is unique among local

anesthetics in that it blocks

resorption of norepinephrine at

sympathetic nerve endings.

11. c- Cascara is an anthraquinone

glycoside that is inactive until it is

hydrolyzed by bacterial enzymes

found in the colon. The other drugs

listed act either in the smallintestine or throughout the bowels.

12. d- Aluminum hydroxide is the only

drug listed that functions as a

buffer antacid. Al (OH)3 + 3 HCL

AlCl3 + 3 H20 in the stomach, and

Al(Cl)3 + 3 NaHCO3 + H2O

Al(OH)3 + 3 NaCl + 3 H2O + 3 CO2

in the duodenum.

13. a- Antihistaminics (eg,

diphenhydramine) are much more

effective for prevention of motion

sickness.

14. c- The penicillins do not have an effect

at the myoneural junction.

15. d- The other penicillins listed are

destroyed in an acidic environment.

16. a- Bacitracin is too toxic for systemic

use, and it has a Gram-positive

antibacterial spectrum.

17. d- Alteration of urinary pH has

negligible effect on the pH of

extracellular fluid.

18. b- Thiazide diuretics increase renal

excretion of potassium, leading to

hypokalemia unless potassium is

supplemented orally.

19. d- Spironolactone is a competitive

antagonist of the aldosterone

receptor.

20. a- Potent central-acting narcotic

analgesics are required to alleviate

the intense visceral pain of ureteral

colic.

21. d- Morphine arrests peristalsis by its

spasmotic action on smooth muscle

in the gut.

22. b- The duration of action ofmeperidine is only about 45

minutes in these species.

23. b- One gallon equals approximately

4000ml. A 1:3000 solution is

equivalent to 0.03%. 4000 x 0.0003

= 1.3 g of potassium permanganate.


23/31

2324. d- 5 gr x 65 mg/gr = 325 mg or 0.325 g.

25. d- 4 oz x 30 ml/oz = 120 ml total,

comprised of 5 parts 70% ethanol

and 2 parts 7% tincture.

26. e- The thiopental is distributed

initially to highly perfused organs,

such as the brain. It then is

distributed from the brain to such

tissues as muscle, reducing the

concentration in the brain.

27. a- The sulfur atom is less polar than

the oxygen atom. The other answer

choices are incorrect.

28. d- Nitrous oxide has very low

solubility in blood.

29. e- Amitriptyline appears to diminish

apprehension and alter the related

behavioral response.

30. a- Progestins decrease libido. The

other answer choices are side effects

of this group of drugs.

31. c- Both of these drugs act as

competitive antagonists of

acetylcholine.

32. a- Methocarbamol acts to inhibit

motor pathways in the spinal cord.

33. e- Alfalfa meal is an important dietary

source of vitamin K.

34. b- Amprolium is a thiamin antagonist

used to control coccidiosis.

35. d- Vitamin E, or alpha tocopherol,

prevents oxidation of essential

cellular constituents.36. c- Albendazole is approved for

removal of liver flukes from sheep

and cattle.

37. e- Some Collies develop blindness,

coma and death in response to

ivermectin.

38. a- Metronidazole is the only drug

listed that affects Giardia canis.

39. d- Phenothiazines block alpha-

adrenergic receptors to cause

hypotension. This effect is reversed

by an alpha antagonist, such as

phenylephrine. The other answer

choices are inappropriate.

40. b- Phenothiazines have a high affinity

for D2 sites and block many of the

actions of dopamine.

41. d- This is the only correct choice.

42. e- Volume of distribution is a

proportionality constant that

relates plasma concentration to

dose.

43. b- Typically, most drugs disappear

from the plasma in an exponential

manner that can be described by a

2-compartment model.

44. d- Thiopental would cause excessive

sedation for a short period, making

the drug unsuitable for long-term

use in prevention of seizures.

45. c- Barbiturates cause induction of

hepatic microsomal enzymes. This

is an important mechanism of drug

interactions.

46. b- Phenytoin alters collagen

metabolism in some individuals,

causing hyperplasia of gingival

tissue.

47. d- Hot lye solution is the only

disinfectant listed that will destroy

all 3 contaminants.48. b- Boiling water or steam under

pressure is the best means of

destroying bacteria on inanimate

objects in a hospital.

49. b- Propantheline is a quaternary

ammonium antimuscarinic

compound. This confers

appreciable activity at ganglionic


24/31

24and muscarinic sites.

50. b- Isopropamide can cause urinary

retention by inducing contraction of

the internal sphincter and

relaxation of the detrusor muscle of

the urinary bladder.

51. d- Heparin is a strongly

electronegative molecule that is

neutralized by protamine, which is

electropositive. This effect

inactivates heparin in vitro and in

vivo.

52. e- Ferrous salts are 3-4 times as

bioavailable as ferric salts.

53. b- Dicumarol is a vitamin K

antagonist within the liver. The

other compounds listed are

unsuitable for such use.

54. e- Benzathine penicillin is a very

insoluble repository form of

penicillin G.

55. d- Lactated Ringers solution contains

calcium chloride. Mixing Ringers

solution with sodium bicarbonate

forms the insoluble precipitate,

calcium carbonate.

56. b- The United States Pharmacopeia

has been the compendium since

1820. The National Formulary was

combined with the United States

Pharmacopeia in 1980.

57. c- Stimulation of the carotid sinus by

increased blood pressure slows theheart rate.

58. d- With complete heart block,

quinidine may extinguish

ventricular ectopic pacemakers to

cause cardiac arrest.

59. a- The other drugs listed would be

contraindicated or inappropriate.

60. c- Arachidonic acid is a component of

phospholipids and, when released,

serves as a precursor to formation

of several eicosanoids.

61. d- Thromboxane is synthesized in

platelets and is a powerful inducer

of platelet aggregation.

62. a- Most of the H-1 histamine receptor-

blocking drugs exert some

anticholinergic effects that decrease

glandular secretion.

63. e- The physiologic effects of

epinephrine are diametrically

opposed to those of histamine and

are immediate in onset.

64. e- This preparation was developed

specifically for burn patients.

65. d- This solution of aluminum

subacetate is used to treat acute,

oozing skin lesions.

66. a- This is a combination of an anionic

and a cationic detergent, which

inactivate each other. The other

choices listed are employed in

combination and are effective.

67. a- The microsomal enzyme system is

not developed at birth in domestic

animals.

68. c- A greater proportion would be

ionized in an alkaline fluid, and less

would undergo resorption from the

tubules.

69. b- Glucocorticoids increase proteincatabolism.

70. d- This is a useful value to consider

when determining the dosage of

various corticosteroids.

71. d- Procaine is poorly absorbed and is

less potent than the other drugs

listed.

72. b- Omeprazole blocks H+

-K+

ATPase


25/31

25in the gastric mucosa.

73. d- Pharmacologically active

components of the other 4

compounds are excreted in milk

and may cause diarrhea in the pigs.

74. c- The action of histamine released

from mast cells on the H2 receptors

would be blocked by cimetidine.

75. e- Penicillins are actively secreted by

the proximal convoluted tubules of

the kidney. The other answer

choices are incorrect.

76. b- Sulfonamides compete with

paraaminobenzoic acid in synthesis

of folic acid.

77. a- Some sulfonamides cause lower-

nephron nephrosis by forming

crystals in the renal tubules.

78. a- Brain edema causes central nervous

system signs.

79. d- Thiazide diuretics inhibit active

resorption of sodium in the

proximal convoluted tubule. The

retained sodium increases the

volume of water in tubular fluid.

80. b- The doses of these drugs vary by 1

and 2 orders of magnitude, but the

other features remain the same.

81. e- The principal action of aspirin is to

decrease synthesis of

prostaglandins by inhibiting

cyclooxygenase.

82. c- Naloxone combines with opiatereceptors without acting as an

agonist.

83. a- A narcotic is not indicated, but the

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory

drug, aspirin, would diminish the

inflammatory response and

alleviate pain.

84. c- 20 kg x 25 mg/kg = 500 mg/dose x 2

doses/day = 1000 mg/day, or 4 250-

mg capsules daily. 4 capsules/day x

5 days = 20 capsules.

85. b- Halothane depresses the

myocardium and blunts the

baroreceptor- mediated

tachycardia in response to

hypotension.

86. c- Equilibration of partial pressure

between the alveolus and blood is

slow because of the solubility of

methoxyflurane.

87. d- Nitrous oxide is an inert gas, but it

may replace oxygen in the inspired

gas mixture and cause hypoxia.

88. d- Diazepam stimulates appetite and

causes weight gain. This effect has

been used to treat anorexia in sick

dogs and cats.

89. b- Hyperkinesis is paradoxically

improved by treatment with a

central nervous system stimulant.

90. b- Dantrolene suppresses excessive

release of calcium ions from the

sarcoplasmic reticulum. This is

believed to be the mechanism

leading to malignant hyperthermia

in susceptible individuals.

91. d- The toxin binds irreversibly to

membrane sites and blocks all

cholinergic junctions.

92. a- The anabolic steroid, nandrolone,

facilitates synthesis of lipoproteins,which leave the liver.

93. c- Vitamin D3 is converted to 25-

hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver

and is hydroxylated at the one-

position by renal mitochondria.

94. d- Avidin binds strongly to biotin and

prevents its absorption from the

intestine.


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2695. d- Sulfaquinoxaline is the only drug

approved for its use.

96. d- Praziquantel completely eliminates

the intermediate stages of this

human tapeworm from cattle.

97. b- Ivermectin is approved in the US

for prevention of heartworm

infections in dogs.

98. c- Phenothiazines relax the retractor

muscle, but in some individuals this

effect is prolonged, leading to

paraphimosis.

99. e- Azaperone is relatively nontoxic

butyrophenone tranquilizer that

may be used in swine.

100. a- Phenothiazines stimulate secretion

of prolactin.

101. a

102. c- This hyperbolic curve relates the

magnitude of a drug effect to the

drug dose. When the curve

flattens, it indicates that all

available receptors are occupied.

103. d

104. a- Of the drugs listed, diazepam is

the only one suitable for this use.

105. c- Benzalkonium chloride is the only

cationic detergent in the group

listed.

106. e- Chlorinated lime is inexpensive

and effective.

107. c- An antimuscarinic drug reduces

detrusor muscle activity.108. e- These plants contain atropine,

which blocks muscarinic receptors.

109. d- Muscarinic sites are blocked by

atropine.

110. a- Manganese is involved in

formation of chondroitin sulfate in

cartilage. It is not involved in

hemoglobin synthesis.

111. c- Glucocorticoids cause this effect

by increasing the rate of

neutrophil entrance into the blood

from the marrow and decreasing

the rate of neutrophil removal

from the blood.

112. d- Heparin increases the activity of

antithrombin III, which forms an

irreversible complex with

thrombin.

113. a

114. c- Atropine blocks the effect of

acetylcholine on the heart.

115. d- Blockade of beta-adrenergic

receptors decreases ventricular

contractility, particularly during

exercise.

116. b- The deleterious effects of toxic

concentrations of digitalis on the

heart are related to ventricular

rhythm rather than to mechanical

activity.

117. a- Heat production is a result of

metabolic activity, which is not

affected by eicosanoids.

118. b- This prostaglandin causes

contraction of the pregnant uterus

and the bronchioles.

119. d- Histamine increases heart rate,

directly, by action on the sinoatrial

node and, reflexively, in response

to the fall in blood pressure.

120. b- This causes arteriolar dilation andreduction of aldosterone secretion.

121. c- Whitfields ointment contains

benzoic and salicylic acids. These

compounds are fungistatic and

keratolytic.

122. d- In this situation, the vehicle should

not irritate the tissue and should

be readily removed from the skin


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27surface.

123. b- Menthol is incorporated into some

topical preparations to cause this

effect.

124. d

Ci Ci 10, 000

7.4 = 3.4 + log Cn; 4 = log Cn; 4 = log 1

125. a- Induction of microsomal enzymes

increases the rate of

biotransformation of the inducing

agent and/or other drugs.

126. a- The succinate ester confers water

solubility on the steroid base. The

solution is quickly absorbed from

the site of deposition.

127. c- If a corticosteroid is given on

alternate days, there will be several

hours during which there is no

inhibition of ACTH secretion. The

effect of ACTH prevents atrophy of

the adrenal cortex.

128. b- Administration of neostigmine

would be contraindicated in all of

the conditions listed except

paralytic ileus. The need for a

specific diagnosis is clear.

129. a- This combination of actions is

unique to metoclopramide and

prevents esophageal reflux of

gastric fluid.

130. c- This class of drugs is concentrated

in the perilymph and endolymph,and causes damage to the hair

cells in the vestibular apparatus

and cochlea.

131. a- Erythromycin is excreted in active

form into the bile.

132. d- Griseofulvin is retained in the

keratin and hair, and exerts a

continuous effect on mycotic

infections of the skin.

133. c- This action results in increased

excretion of sodium, chloride and

water.

134. a- Mannitol is not metabolized or

resorbed by the kidney and is

useful as an osmotic diuretic and

to relieve edema in tissues, such as

cerebral edema.

135. b- Methotrexate blocks conversion of

folic acid to folinic acid, which is

the functional coenzyme. If folinic

acid is given to the animal, the

effect of methotrexate is obviated.

136. d- Gastrointestinal mucosal cells

have a rapid turnover rate. Such

cells are vulnerable to

antineoplastic drugs.

137. c- Leucovorin is a reduced,

functional folate coenzyme.

138. d- Methadone is a synthetic opioid

analgesic that alleviates visceral

pain.

139. a- An effective dose in cattle is only

1/10 of that required for horses,

dogs and cats, and 1/20 to 1/30 of

that required for swine.

140. d- Renal clearance of salicylate (pKa

3.0) is increased in alkaline urine.

141. c- Urochloralic acid gives a false-

positive result in tests for reducing

sugars.

142. a- Barbital, a long-actingbarbiturate, is excreted unchanged

by the kidneys.

143. b- Selenium is a component of

glutathione reductase, which

decreases formation of free

radicals that are involved in lipid

peroxidation of membranes.

144. e- Niacin deficiency in dogs causes


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28oral ulceration, thick saliva, and a

darkened appearance of the

tongue.

145. a- These effects are associated most

commonly with the phenothiazines

but could also be seen with the

butyrophenones, as these effects

are associated with dopaminergic

receptors.

146. b- Allergic reactions to acepromazine

are apparently extremely rare as

compared with the other adverse

effects listed, as they are not

reported.

147. a- The other drugs listed either

cannot be injected or are not

effective against whipworms.

148. c- Benzimidazoles have a wide

margin of safety in clinical use.

149. e- Virtually all of the drug would be

eliminated from the body after 5

half-lives have elapsed.

150. c- The plateau would occur over a

period equivalent to 5 half-lives

after the drug had been

administered.

151. a- Alpha-adrenergic agonists, such as

phenylephrine, constrict mucosal

blood vessels.

152. d- Beta-adrenergic agonists, such as

isoproterenol, dilate arterioles in

the muscle. This reducesperipheral resistance and

decreases blood pressure.

153. c- Pilocarpine is well absorbed from

ophthalmic solutions and

ointments, and causes contraction

of the pupillary sphincter.

154. d- Quinidine is the only appropriate

choice.

155. a- Hypercalcemia or hypokalemia

increases the sensitivity of the

myocardium to digitalis.

156. b- Morphine dilates capacitance

vessels in the systemic circulation,

which resultant redistribution of

blood away from the pulmonary

circulation.

157. a- The half-life for salicylate is only

30 minutes in cattle.

158. d- Acetophenetidin and

acetaminophen are weak

inhibitors of cyclooxygenase in

peripheral tissues, as compared

with their effect in the central

nervous system.

159. b- These drugs prolong the effects of

other drugs, such as the increased

sleeping time seen in barbiturate

anesthesia.

160. d- Brain tissue has a high lipid

content.

161. a- Irritating drug solutions are

infused slowly into a vein to allow

for dilution.

162. d- An excess (Cushings disease) or a

deficiency (Addisons disease) of

cortisol causes muscular weakness.

163. b- The fluorine atom at the 9 position

withdraws electrons from the

hydroxyl group at the 11 position

and enhances all biologicalactivities.

164. e- The sodium salts of the other

sulfonamides listed are extremely

alkaline and would injure the eye.

165. c- Use of chloramphenicol in these

animals is prohibited because of

the fear that residues in food

products might cause aplastic


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29anemia in susceptible people.

166. a- Tetracyclines chelate divalent

cations, such as calcium in dairy

products, and this impairs

absorption of the antibiotic.

167. a- Streptozocin is used to treat

pancreatic insulinoma.

168. e- Cyclophosphamide is a pro-drug

that is activated by hepatic

microsomal enzymes.

169. c- Equilibration occurs more rapidly

when the agent is not soluble in

blood.

170. e- Halothane decreases cardiac

output and suppresses reflex

tachycardia.

171. b- Ketamine causes muscle jerking

and delirium when used alone for

anesthesia of dogs.

172. b- Chloramphenicol is converted to

inactive arylamines in the

reducing environment of the

rumen.

173. c- Motor activity of the internal

urethral sphincter is mediated by

sympathetic nerves. Receptors are

of the alpha-adrenergic type.

174. d- Bethanechol is a cholinergic drug.

175. a- The actions of ephedrine are

similar to those of epinephrine, but

ephedrine can be given orally and

it has a longer duration of action.176. d- When a patient is digitalized, the

dosage is titrated until a clinical

effect is attained.

177. e- Procainamide is the only drug

listed that is effective for treatment

of supraventricular arrhythmias.

178. b- The other drugs listed do not have

this action.

179. c- Phenylbutazone acts by inhibiting

synthesis of prostaglandins, not by

modifying their effects.

180. b- Aspirin is the only drug listed that

acetylates cyclooxygenase and

irreversibly abolishes synthesis of

thromboxane in platelets.

181. d- Because of their lipid solubility,

nonpolar drugs diffuse from

tubular fluid into the blood in the

peritubular capillaries, rather than

being eliminated in the urine.

182. c- Most drugs are relatively small

molecules that diffuse across

membranes in response to

concentration gradients.

183. d- It does this by adding to the drug

molecule more water-soluble

groups, such as glucuronate or

hydroxyl groups.

184. a- This effect is significant clinically

as it interferes with normal wound

healing.

185. c- The bone marrow of dogs is

particularly sensitive to estrogen,

which inhibits stem cells.

186. b- Corticosteroids inhibit healing,

and this may lead to corneal

perforation and loss of aqueous.

187. b- Chloramphenicol is reduced and

conjugated in the liver. The other

drugs listed are eliminated largely

unchanged.188. b- Gentamicin has a wide spectrum

of antibacterial activity and is

eliminated unchanged by the

kidneys.

189. d- Sulfonamide solutions are too

irritating to be injected into

tissues.

190. b- Anthracycline antibiotics, such as


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30doxorubicin, cause cumulative

dose-related cardiomyopathy.

191. d- Vinca alkaloids, such as

vincristine, interfere with

assembly of microtubules during

cell division.

192. d- Yohimbine is an alpha-2

adrenoceptor antagonist.

193. a- The antihypertensive drug

diazoxide suppresses insulin

release through an alpha-

adrenergic effect on pancreatic

beta cells.

194. c- Vasopressin tannate is more slowly

absorbed than the other

preparations listed.

195. b- Oral hypoglycemic drugs increase

secretion of insulin in the

remaining pancreatic islet cells.

196. c- Amphotericin is a polyene

antibiotic that causes a wide

variety of untoward effects in

patients.

197. d- For this reason, cuprimyxin is

useful in treatment of otitis

externa.

198. a- Ketoconazole requires an acidic

environment for dissolution.

Ranitidine blocks gastric acid

secretion.

199. a- Insulin and glucose drive

potassium intracellularly, causing

hypokalemia.200. e- The corticosteroid exerts

antilymphocytic effects.

201. e- This allows persistence of the

neurotransmitter at its receptor

site and accentuates the effect.

202. b- Tetracyclines are effective for

treatment of anaplasmosis and for

elimination of the carrier state.

203. c- This unusual effect, which is

permanent, would seem to dictate

that this group of drugs should be

avoided for use in immature

animals.


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VET-Pharma Q_A